When I remarked on God's omnipotence, you said:
So I take it that your position is that God cannot perform logically absurd tasks such as creating a square circle. You use this line of reasoning to conclude that God cannot create sinless beings.
God set up the rules that create the circle. Why would God who instated what a circle would be, who determined what would constitute a circle and that having the nature of a circle can not by God's design be anything but a circle. God needs not redesign or change rules, but in fact, has said He will not according to His own will change them.
So to summarize your views:
You are summarizing what you "think" my views are.
1. A square circle is logically impossible
a circle is a circle due to the design of God. A circle is the nature of a shape that is described as a circle.
2. God cannot create a square circle
God is a rational Being that created the circle. The circle is the nature of a certain shape that if that shape is altered no longer is considered a circle. Again, God determined that this shape is a circle and His rational thought in doing so determines that if a circle is no longer in the shape of its nature it is no longer a circle.
3. Therefore, one of God's limitations is that he cannot create a square circle
Again, a circle of any other shape is no longer what its nature was designed to be. By all rational thought, a circle will not remain a circle if it is altered in such a way as to no longer be in the shape of its nature. God is not limited by the rules of logic but instead the rules are by His very rational nature and design.
4. God cannot create a square circle and as far as we can tell this is because it is logically impossible (or is there another reason?)
Man knows that a circle is a circle and if it is altered in such a way becomes a square. A square is the nature of a shape that we label square. Logic did not exist before God for Him to be limited by them, Logic comes from God's rational thought.
5. Therefore, one of God's limitations is due to logic
This statement asserts that logic exists outside or separately from God's rational thought, that is not the case and as such God is not limited by logic as logic is God's rationality.
6. We conclude that God is limited by logic
You conclude God is limited by logic, but logic tells us that logic is not a separate entity nor did it exist prior to God. God then is not limited by logic, but God is rational and logic is the flow of His rationality.
God is limited by logic, or bound by logic, or unable to violate logic, etc. To clarify, this is your worldview, not mine.
No, this is not my worldview, this is your misunderstanding of both of our worldviews.
If I believed in your God, I'd believe he could violate logic because he positively must do so in order to be omniscient or create the universe ex nihilio, both of which are essential characteristics of YHWH.
Both are required but your premise that logic is a separate entity that precedes God is an assertion without basis.
Why must he violate logic to be omniscient?
Gödel proved that there must be propositions which are true/false but cannot be shown to be either, which is to say that their truth value is necessarily unknown. God's omniscience is just as logically absurd as a square circle.
Truth is God. Your assertion is simply a mis-characterization of God's limits. Only man is limited by propositions that are true or false but can not be shown to be either.
Why must he violate logic to create the universe ex nihilo?
Allow me to recycle my arguments for this:
A system is a region of space.
A state is the arrangement of matter, energy, and otherwise existing things within a system.
Causality acts on a system to take it from one state to another over a duration of time.
"Prior" to the t=0 event, space and time "did" not exist. Phrased more precisely, in a state of reality wherein the t=0 event has not occurred, space and time do not exist. Therefore, causality does not exist in this state of reality. Therefore, the t=0 event cannot have been brought about via causality.
Alternatively, we can define causality as this:
Causality is the relation between a thing that is acting, a thing that is being acted on, and the effect that results. For example, consider a man sculpting a statue. The man is the thing that is acting, the marble is the thing that is being acted on, and the effect that results is the statue. With this in mind, allow me to recycle my alternative rebuttal to the Kalam argument:
What did God act on to causally bring about the universe? Did he act on the universe? Then the universe existed before it existed so it could be acted upon and brought into existence... an absurdity. Did he act on nothing? Then nothing was causally effected, which is to say that the universe was created without a cause, so the most you can possibly say is that the universe spontaneously popped into existence and that God was present but not participating.
You are actually making the argument for God's existence. Everything in the universe has a cause. Everything has an explanation of being in existence if it exists there is the Principle of Sufficient Reason for it to exist. The universe is one large interacting chain of existence with each thing having a sufficient reason for existence. Your example for instance, beginning with the statue. The statue did not pop into existence without a cause, the cause of the statue is the marble. It exists by metamorphic rock that forms when limestone is subjected to the heat and pressure of metamorphism. The man exists because his parents existed before him and before that the universe spewed out stardust and man came to exist, the stardust exists by fusion in the universe, the universe then must have a sufficient reason for it to exist and the buck doesn't stop there. If there is no first cause or uncaused cause then we have an infinite regress of causes with no first link in the chain of all other causes in the universe. If there is a cause, an eternal, necessary, independent and self explanatory Being that has nothing above it, before it, or supporting it we have a sufficient reason for all causes in the universe and the universe itself. We have evidence throughout our existence that there is sufficient reason for all causes in the universe, why would you entertain the thought that the universe stands apart and separate from that chain of causes?
Why are these issues relevant to the thread?
Did you forget the progression of the discussion?
If we have shown that God necessarily must be able to violate logic, then your contention that he could not have created us to be sinless is refuted. Therefore we are left with the question again: If God prefers us to be sinless, and if we are better off that way as well, and if we would avoid hell had we been created that way initially, why didn't God simply do it that way?
As I've shown, your assertions are unfounded and the question of whether or not God could create us to be sinless is not refuted at all.