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Why was the new testament written in greek?

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wonderwoman

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I know the new test. was written in coine greek and aramaic, but I'd like to understand why? Was greek the official language being spoken in Jerusalem or Jewish lands? Did the jews speak greek among themselves? If so, Why greek? How or why did the greek language become so widespread? If greek was the language of the gentiles in those areas then it makes sense that paul would write his epistles in greek, but what about the gospels like Matthew which seemed to have been written for a jewish audience? Did the Roman occupiers speak greek as well? Wouldn't they be speaking latin? or was it common to know multiple languages in that region? I'm just trying to understand the whole language thing.
Thanx,
monica
 

Trento

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Greek was the language of scholarship during the years of the composition of the New Testament from 50 to 100 AD. The fact is that many Jews could not even read Hebrew anymore, and this disturbed the Jewish leaders a lot! So, around 300 BC a translation of the Old Testament from Hebrew into Greek was undertaken, and it was completed around 200 BC. Gradually this Greek translation of the Old Testament, called the Septuagint, was widely accepted and was even used in many synagogues. It also became a wonderful missionary tool for the early Christians, for now the Greeks could read God's Word in their own tongue. They did not, however, use really high-class or classical Greek, but a very common and everyday type of Greek. For many years some scholars ridiculed the Greek of the New Testament because many of its words were strange to those who read the writings of the great Greek classical authors such as Plato and Aristotle. But later many records were uncovered of ordinary people, and amazingly there were the same common terms used in everyday speech! The ridicule dried up accordingly.
 
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wonderwoman

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Trento, thanx for the helpful info.
So if the jews could no longer read ancient Hebrew, what language did they speak to each other? Was it aramaic? Greek? Did they speak Hebrew, but were illiterate?
The earliest manuscripts of NT appear circa 50 years after Christ's resurrection right? Do we know for certain that the writers (eg: Matthew, Mark, luke, john, Paul, james etc) wrote these accounts and letters in the greek and aramaic languages or were they written in Hebrew first, then translated by others into Greek and Aramaic since Greek was the language of scholarship? Were any of the early nt manuscripts written in Hebrew? If so, which were written in Hebrew, which in Greek and which in Aramaic? I also would like to know what is Aramaic? I believe it was a semetic language right? Where did it come from? Who spoke/wrote in this language and why?
I know I have a thousand questions. If anyone can point me to an online source that explains all this, please direct me there.
Thanx,
Monica
 
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E.C.

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Greek was the common language at the time. All scholars, traders, government officials, and many many many others knew Greek. Greek back then, is like English today.

Besides, Paul wrote to the Greeks.

And the overall culture of the Eastern Mediterranean (except for Palestine) was Greek.
 
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NewToLife

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Greek was the common language at the time. All scholars, traders, government officials, and many many many others knew Greek. Greek back then, is like English today.

This is correct. We have to remember that, post Alexander, Greek was everywhere and that even many Jews in the diaspora would understand Greek but not Hebrew, hence the Hebrew scriptures largely in use at the time were the septuagint rather than Hebrew texts.

Even writing to Jews it would make sense to use Greek so as not to exclude the diaspora.
 
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LamorakDesGalis

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The NT was written entirely in Greek. However, the Jews in the land fluently spoke and wrote three languages - Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic. We have tomb inscriptions, town plaques, and coins which show that all three were popular. The reason Greek was widespread is that it was the universal language for the Eastern Mediterranean area. The reason Aramaic was widespread is it was the universal language for the peoples/lands in the Middle East. Both Greek and Aramaic were extremely useful for commerce. Also the OT was translated into both Greek and Aramaic, and these translations regarded as Scripture by the Jews - as much as the Hebrew OT was regarded as Scripture. In fact, in the NT the Greek Septuagint is quoted the most. There are also Hebrew and Aramaic quotes - written in Greek of course, but by the wording we know they come from the Hebrew or Aramaic versions.

If greek was the language of the gentiles in those areas then it makes sense that paul would write his epistles in greek, but what about the gospels like Matthew which seemed to have been written for a jewish audience?

Greek was the universal language not just for the Eastern Mediterranean, but also for the "lower classes" such as slaves. Paul's audience - Jew and Gentile - rich or poor - would have expected him to write in Greek. The Gentiles in particular would not have known Hebrew or Aramaic.

Scholars have studied the issues concerning the gospel of Matthew and based on internal evidence, concluded that it was originally written in Greek.

Did the Roman occupiers speak greek as well? Wouldn't they be speaking latin? or was it common to know multiple languages in that region? I'm just trying to understand the whole language thing.

The Romans in 1st century Palestine would have known Greek and Latin. And yes, it was - and still is - common to know multiple languages in the land.

So if the jews could no longer read ancient Hebrew, what language did they speak to each other? Was it aramaic? Greek? Did they speak Hebrew, but were illiterate?

Well actually, the Jews did read and speak Hebrew at that time. They put Hebrew on their coins, tomb inscriptions, etc. The Jews spoke Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek to one another. In the Gospel of Matthew, Jesus went into the synagogue and quoted from the Greek Septuagint. Other times Jesus spoke Aramaic, when He was on the cross.


Evangelical scholars are certain that all the NT books were originally written in Greek. One of the comparisons used is looking at other NT books translated into other languages -such as Latin, Coptic, Syriac, etc. These translated languages show they came from a Greek translation.

Were any of the early nt manuscripts written in Hebrew? If so, which were written in Hebrew, which in Greek and which in Aramaic?

There haven't been any "independent" Hebrew or Aramaic manuscripts that have been found. So the physical evidence is all in the favor of Greek. Also none of the NT books were said by early church fathers to be originally written in Hebrew or Aramaic, save one - Matthew, with one vague reference by Papias. However like I said, scholars have analyzed the text of Matthew and concluded it also was written originally in Greek.

There is an early Hebrew Gospel of Matthew used by the Ebionites. But this Ebionite Matthew has been shown that it was originally translated from a Greek Matthew.


Aramaic is a semitic language, similar to Hebrew - it uses the same alphabet. Aramaic originated with the Aramaeans, then became a kind of official language of various empires. This "imperial" Aramaic is found in OT books such as Daniel and Ezra. The exiled Jews picked it up in Babylon and brought it back when they returned to the land.

I'm sorry I don't have extensive online references for you - I could list books, but I'm not sure that would be helpful. Wikipedia would be a decent start, though.


LDG
 
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PaladinValer

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Contrary to what is sometimes believed in, none of the NT was originally written in Hebrew or anyother Semitic language. Its an old theory long proven wrong.

It was written in Greek because Greek was the lingua franca of the day. Pretty much everyone knew it: the Romans, the Greeks (obviously!), the Hebrews, the Egyptians, and everyone else in the Empire. Sure other languages, like Aramaic and Latin, were used, but when it came to trade, casual conversation of people between cultures and gossip, Koine Greek was the norm.

In addition, the Old Testament at the time had been in Greek for several centuries now. The Septuagint was the official Bible of the Early Church, even before anything else of the New Testament was ever written!

When you combine the fact that the Septuagint was in existence with the universality of Greek anyway, writing the NT in Greek also was the best way for everyone to be able to read the Bible.
 
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wonderwoman

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Dear LDG,
Thank you sooooo much for sharing your knowledge and taking the time to answer my questions! It was really helpful.
I love to learn about this stuff.

I know 3 languages at the moment and hope to make Koine Greek my fourth one day. So far I've taught myself the alphabet and letter pronounciations, but I have a long way to go. Unfortunately Koine Greek is a dead language so I wouldn't have anyone to speak it with. I wonder how far removed it is from modern Greek? I imagine it would be the difference between old English to modern English. (Old English is not Shakespeare's English, as many people believe. Shakespeare's English is middle English.)

Two quick questions: Was Koine Greek a common language in Rome as well? What is the difference between Koine Greek and classical Greek?

Would you happen to know of any free on line source that teaches Koine Greek?
Thanx again,
Monica
 
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wonderwoman

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Thanx Paladin for the info.

What is the Vulgate? I learned this back in school, but I forgot.
Is the Vulgate the Latin translation of the Greek new testament?
Was the Septuagint in Koine Greek or classical Greek?
 
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