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Why the Protestant view of the Cross is wrong.

brinny

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MoreCoffee

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That's no surprize, is it?

What statements in R.C. Sproul's video did you find repugnant?

See my post above.
 
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brinny

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Originally Posted by brinny
Then His Word needs to be spoken more.

Yes, they do.

But that does not mean we understand them in the same way, as this thread shows.

His Word speaks for itself. It needs no help from man. The Holy Spirit works it into our hearts, minds, and spirits.
 
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prov1810

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The Father and the Son are not at odds. They have the same concept of justice, and the same love for the people they saved. The Father did not hate the Son: "The Father loves Me because I lay down my life" (Jn 10:17). I want to add that the cross did not make God loving. Love is the reason for the cross: "For God so loved the world." There are about a half dozen places in the NT where love is given as the reason for the atonement.

It was the Father's will that the cup of suffering would not pass from Jesus (Matt. 26:39) and Jesus said, "as You will." Think about that. The Father willed the Son to suffer. This isn't kindness. Making someone suffer, this is treating someone like an enemy. Obviously, Jesus wasn't being hurt by the Father for His own sins. It was for ours.
 
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Thekla

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His Word speaks for itself. It needs no help from man. The Holy Spirit works it into our hearts, minds, and spirits.

He does, I agree.

There are different understandings of these verses.

So either there are different hearings, and different ways of expressing, or different translations, or different steps on the path of understanding.

None of us can understand perfectly, of course, as Paul points out. And because it is a journey, and steps on the journey (again, Paul's "running the race", and Peter's teaching on adding virtue to virtue)) then maybe this is what happens...
 
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brinny

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Originally Posted by brinny
Did you watch the video you posted? What statements that RC Sproul said, did you find repugnant?

Yes.

I do not intend to watch it again so that I can transcribe his comments.

you mentioned several of his statements as repugnant to you. No need to watch it again if you watched it already. What RC Sproul's statements were you referring to? If they were that repugnant you'd remember them.
 
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MoreCoffee

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you mentioned several of his statements as repugnant to you. No need to watch it again if you watched it already. What RC Sproul's statements were you referring to? If they were that repugnant you'd remember them.

See the posts where I explained the matter - twice so far.
 
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MoreCoffee

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A am able to agree with your first paragraph and unable to agree with the second for the reasons stated in the post that you quoted.
 
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brinny

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Originally Posted by MoreCoffee
Well, it isn't THE biblical teaching. It is ONE way that biblical data is interpreted.

No my friend. Scripture interprets itself. Either way, I referenced. I encourage you to openly study the verses.

i concur.
 
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ChristianLife08

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besides your very last sentence. there's no difference between reformed and the catholic. it's sad how you are purposefully attempting to point a division. when even before the reformers/the RCC, the ECF taught on PSA.
 
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MoreCoffee

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besides your very last sentence. there's no difference between reformed and the catholic. it's sad how you are purposefully attempting to point a division. when even before the reformers/the RCC, the ECF taught on PSA.

Click the link in my post. The one you quoted.
 
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ChristianLife08

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no my friend. not recent at all. only revived.
 
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Clare73

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Ro 3:25-26 has been in Scripture for 2,000 years.

Perhaps you would like to answer the questions on it above.
 
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MoreCoffee

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Ro 3:25-26 has been in Scripture for 2,000 years.

Perhaps you would like to answer the questions on it.

... For there is no distinction, since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God; they are now justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a sacrifice of atonement by his blood, effective through faith. He did this to show his righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over the sins previously committed; it was to prove at the present time that he himself is righteous and that he justifies the one who has faith in Jesus. (Romans 3:22-26)

Exactly how does that passage teach penal substitutionary atonement?

I do not see it.

Jesus' death is described as a sacrifice for atonement but not as receiving divine punishment for sins nor as receiving God's wrath.

Since Jesus willingly went to the cross out of love for humanity there seems to be no support for PSA in the passage.
 
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