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Why the Protestant view of the Cross is wrong.

brinny

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I did. Re-read the opening post. Re-read the second post. Re-read my various comments.

Please. Continue with His Word. It is His Word that is used powerfully by God, not opinions of man.
 
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Albion

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Any view of the Atonement can be compatible with *A* form of Salvation by Faith Alone....BUT the historic Lutheran-Calvinist version of Salvation by Faith Alone is based upon the PSub view.

It will work, too.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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brinny

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Originally Posted by brinny
Please. Continue with His Word. It is His Word that is used powerfully by God, not opinions of man.

Thank you. I will do that.

Thank you for your gracious response. I got all tangled up in GT today...again...i'm exhausted LOL

Your response is refreshing to me soul. Speaking of His Word, any words of encouragement to share?
 
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brinny

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Standing Up

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Originally Posted by Standing Up
Wrong. It was the same.

Deut. 21:23 His body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt in any wise bury him that day; (for he that is hanged [is] accursed of God that thy land be not defiled, which the LORD thy God giveth thee [for] an inheritance.

So, Gal 3:13 Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed [is] every one that hangeth on a tree:

Cursed (verb). By God. Made a curse (noun). By God.

We were cursed (separated from God) by the Law. The penalty was death and being dead, hanging on the tree. Christ was made the curse and thus redeemed (paid the penalty of death, cursed, separated from God) us.
Catholic Dude: Curse here refers to a humiliating death. It does not refer to God's Wrath in the sense of a sinner suffering hellfire. In other words, he that is hanged is suffering a humiliating death.

SU: from blueletterbible 1) accursed, execrable, exposed to divine vengeance, lying under God's curse

It's not a humiliating death only. Curse is divine vengeance, hellfire if you will.

The sense of the Deut passage is this: `And when there is in a man a sin -- a cause of death, and he hath been put to death, and thou hast hanged him on a tree,"

IOW, the person is dead. And hung upon a tree already dead. He is cursed. Christ on the cross is already dead in a sense; why hast thou forsaken me?
 
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OpenDoor

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Surely he took up our pain and bore our suffering, yet we considered him punished by God, stricken by him, and afflicted. But he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was on him, and by his wounds we are healed.
Isaiah 53:4-5

Question One- Is this a prophecy about Jesus?
Question Two- If yes, what was the punishment that brought us peace which was on him?
 
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OpenDoor

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Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise Him;
He has put Him to grief.
When You make His soul an offering for sin,
He shall see His seed, He shall prolong His days,
And the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in His hand.
Isaiah 53:10

1. Who did it please the LORD to bruise?
2. Did He put Him to grief?
3. Was His soul made an offering for sin?
 
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Hammster

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What's pretty much the Bible's teaching? Penal Substitution? If so, then kindly show a few texts plainly showing the Father poured His Wrath out on Jesus.

I'm curious to see if Protestants really are faithful to that Sola Scriptura thing

Blind post.

1 John 2:2.

God's wrath was satisfied.

Three things to remember.

1. Sin is an offense against God and is punishable.
2. Not everyone is punished for their sin.
3. The reason is the cross.
 
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ViaCrucis

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Penal Substitution arose within the Reformed tradition.

It's probably debatable to what extent the Lutheran Confessions espouse Penal Substitution, it would seem there are arguments on both sides. That said, it's safe to say that it is primarily, and historically, from the Reformed camp.

The Confessions do espouse Satisfaction, but again, whether or not that Satisfaction is placed within the context of Penal Substitution seems to be something that is debated.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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SU: from blueletterbible 1) accursed, execrable, exposed to divine vengeance, lying under God's curse

It's not a humiliating death only. Curse is divine vengeance, hellfire if you will.
The term curse is not used to refer to hellfire, but rather human afflictions. You have to go back to the Old Testament texts to see this: "if a man has committed a crime punishable by death and he is put to death" This refers to public execution and exposure.

IOW, the person is dead. And hung upon a tree already dead. He is cursed. Christ on the cross is already dead in a sense; why hast thou forsaken me?
If the person is dead when they're hung, then how does it even make sense to say an already dead person is suffering God's wrath? How is Christ "already dead"?

Question One, yes, it's a prophecy of Jesus:
Matthew 8: 16 That evening they brought to him many who were oppressed by demons, and he cast out the spirits with a word and healed all who were sick. 17 This was to fulfill what was spoken by the prophet Isaiah: “He took our illnesses and bore our diseases.”
So this had nothing to do with Jesus suffering the Father's wrath.

Question two, the term translated "punishment" in v5 is a bad translation by the NIV. All good translations properly translate the Hebrew word here as "Chastise." The notion of Chastisement is something that all Christians undergo as a form of Fatherly correction, it's not something that a judge imposes the death penalty on. (See how the Hebrew term Chastise is used throughout the OT and NT).

I addressed this earlier. The meaning is that the Father sent Jesus to suffer and die, and this suffering and death would act as an offering for sin.

Blind post.

1 John 2:2.

God's wrath was satisfied.

Three things to remember.

1. Sin is an offense against God and is punishable.
2. Not everyone is punished for their sin.
3. The reason is the cross.
The term propitiation in 1 Jn 2:2 refers to appeasing or turning away wrath. If a dad's wrath on his children is appeased or turned away, it does not mean the dad went and beat his wife with the punishment the children deserved. Rather, it means something was done so the wrath subsided and nobody was punished. If you go back to the first post there is a link explaining how the Biblical term Atonement is used in Scripture. It refers to someone doing a good work that offsets the damage that sin caused (e.g. Proverbs 16:6 says "through love and faithfulness sin is atoned for.")

True, but that's because the Reformed tradition has been historically more systematic in their theology, where as Lutherans have tended to shy away from this and prefer to keep everything a mystery. Luther was the first to make PSub type comments, and the Lutheran understanding of salvation strongly suggests PSub.
 
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ViaCrucis

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There are many, many Lutherans who embrace the Lutheran view of salvation without subscribing to Penal Substitution. I'm one of them.

The Lutheran doctrine of Justification does not require Penal Substitution. One doesn't need to subscribe to Satisfaction Theory broadly to uphold the Doctrine of Justification. I subscribe to the Lutheran doctrine of Justification as well as Christus Victor theory. I don't see a conflict.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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brinny

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i respectfully disagree with you. Then again, i'm not Catholic
 
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prov1810

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Rather, it means something was done so the wrath subsided and nobody was punished.
This would seem to mean that God was angry and then His disposition was changed.

Or that His wrath was separate from Himself and then destroyed like a missile before it found its target.

Or that "Lamb of God" does not mean that Jesus' death saved us; rather, His lamby gentleness and sweetness was found winsome with God. Salvation by lolcat cartoon.

We have tried to point out that someone was indeed punished, and for us ("It pleased the LORD to bruise Him" and "He was bruised for our iniquities") but you want to believe that this is neither punishment nor vicarious. I think we're stuck here.
 
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Clare73

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Applying human logic to divine revelation. . .is the key to limited apprehension of God's truth.

It's not complicated.

Christ's atonement paid the penalty that is due at the Final Judgment on the sin of those who believe in him.

That is penal substitutionary atonement.

Paul reveals that the penalty was punishment (Ro 3:25).

Scripture reveals that Jesus saves us from the God's wrath on our sin (Ro 5:9).

Jesus reveals that those who reject him spend eternity in hell. (Jn 3:18, 36; Mk 9:42-48)

Stack it up any way that suits you, Jesus paid the penalty due on my sin at the Final Judgment.

You are not in a position to say that the penalty did not include the things which Scripture reveals are due on sin.

You mock the spiritual wisdom which transcends human reasoning.
 
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MoreCoffee

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I think Catholic Dude's statements relate to the theological superstructure that Calvinist Christians use as their explanation of Christ's sacrifice.

It isn't mockery to disagree.

A theory is just a theory until it is proven to be true.

The penal substitutionary theory of the atonement is not God's revealed truth, it is just a theory.
 
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brinny

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You're entitled to your opinion. I prefer the Word of God, but thank you for sharing.
 
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ViaCrucis

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You're entitled to your opinion. I prefer the Word of God, but thank you for sharing.

Scripture uses an abundance of language to describe the Mystery of the Atonement.

The different theories of Atonement are after-the-fact approaches to that Mystery, it's how we attempt to condense the language of Scripture into a concise summary and narrative.

Penal Substitution is one such approach. Proponents of it can find plenty of biblical language to support that approach.

Likewise Christus Victor is one such approach. Proponents of it can find just as much biblical language to support that approach.

At the end of the day the event of the Atonement itself remains a grand and transcendent Mystery, and we're all trying to put that Mystery into words that we can take hold of.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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