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Why the Protestant view of the Cross is wrong.

MoreCoffee

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Did folk achieve agreement that "Penal substitutionary atonement" is not biblical but rather a theological construct that is one of many possible constructions derived from the data present in scripture but not necessarily fully consistent with scripture's teaching?
 
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Rick Otto

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Not this folk.
 
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Clare73

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You are in no position to declare penal substitutionary atonement a "theological construct" until you present answers to the following questions that are consistent with the text and the rest of Scripture.

"God presented Jesus as a sacrifice of propitiation (atonement) (4,5) through faith in his blood (6).

He did this to demonstrate his justice (3), because in his forbearance he had passed over (1,2)

(left unpunished) the sins committed beforehand (OT)--he did it to demonstrate his justice (3)

at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies (7)." (Ro 3:25-26)

1) What did God "pass over" the sins committed beforehand (OT)?

2) The "what passed over" consisted precisely of?

3) How did the "what passed over" demonstrate God's justice?

4) For what did Jesus' sacrificial death atone?

5) How does Jesus' sacrificial death atone (make reparation, amends) for it?

6) What is the connection between his atonement and my faith in it (his blood)?

7) How is God both just and the one who justifies?
 
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Clare73

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MoreCoffee said:
You're repeating yourself.
In the absence ([post=63164645]here[/post]) of an adequate explanation of the meaning of Ro 3:25-26 consistent with the text and the rest of Scripture (as done [post=63167342]here[/post]), your assertion is made in ignorance of the meaning of Ro 3:25-26, which presents penal substitutionary atonement.

So this is not about defending the Scriptures, this is about defending your theology, which you cannot show to be in agreement with the Scriptures.

Ergo: The "Protestant view" of the cross is not wrong, because it is the Scriptural view of Ro 3:25-26.
 
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Clare73

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I never really could guess what shell the peanut was under . it's not a fair game .
Well, actually it was under all of them.

Penal substitutionary atonement means Jesus died as a ransom (Mt 20:28; 1Ti 2:6; Heb 9:15) for the satisfaction (propitiation) of God's justice.

So the "Protestant view" of the cross is not wrong, it is the Scriptural view of Ro 3:25-26.
 
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Eric Hibbert

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Just to clarify, are you stating that Catholics deny penal substitutionary atonement?
 
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Gregory Thompson

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But that contradicts what Jesus said about his Father

the explanation using the roman legal system was actually a parable as well .
 
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Foamhead

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Gregory Thompson

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i recall reading of textual variants of revelation . so taking away from or adding since no bible translator knows what the original was of a surety .. that's technically not our responsibility in this time period .

the only thing that preserves the message are the core truths that everything else written clings to as a premise .
 
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MoreCoffee

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Revelation 22:18-19 tell the reader not to tamper with the text of the book. Some think that book is the whole bible as they hold it in their hand. Others think, with better reasons, that the book is the book of Revelation itself. Neither interpretation can sustain the burden of the weight of sola scriptura. The verses do not teach that the bible and the bible alone is the final arbiter of doctrinal disputes. That role - the role of final arbiter - belongs to Jesus Christ. Just as the final arbiter of the meaning of Jesus' passion is Jesus Christ rather than the various theories of the atonement.
 
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Rev Randy

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And we receive this arbitration how? (through?)
 
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MoreCoffee

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And we receive this arbitration how? (through?)

Through people, the church, and in some cases through our own "spirit led" inclinations. I put that in quotes because it can be just us or it might be the Spirit really leading but it is no easy task to tell the difference.
 
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Rev Randy

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Gregory Thompson

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Since Revelation barely made it into the canon in the first place . those curse passages would refer to the book of revelation . because not all bibles had the book of revelation until canonization . and a number of letters seem to be written after the book of revelation from what they refer to .. and other letters do not .
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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And we receive this arbitration how? (through?)
Through people, the church, and in some cases through our own "spirit led" inclinations. I put that in quotes because it can be just us or it might be the Spirit really leading but it is no easy task to tell the difference.
This time I got your back

Fiddler on the roof - Tradition ( with subtitles ) - YouTube

Would this be the first time?


 
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Clare73

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But that contradicts what Jesus said about his Father
Does it?

Jesus said he came to die. . .as a ransom for the sins of many.

He said his was the blood (death) for a covenant.

He said all those who do not believe in him are condemned already.

He said all those who reject him remain under the wrath of God.

the explanation using the roman legal system was actually a parable as well .
Where is this parable found in the NT?
 
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Rick Otto

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What do you see as "the burden & weight" of sola scriptura? The reason I ask is because I see either interpretation working without destroying the other.

Jesus being the "final arbiter" of the meaning of His passion doesn't disqualify any of us from the ability to legitimately understand it to an appreciable degree..
 
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