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WHY THE LORD'S DAY IS NOT SATURDAY

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trophy33

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Almost every Christian denomination on Earth affirms the continued *"unit of TEN"
And regarding reformed churches, we can check with The Second Helvetic Confession:

SUPERSTITION. In this connection we do not yield to the Jewish observance and to superstitions. For we do not believe that one day is any holier than another, or think that rest in itself is acceptable to God. Moreover, we celebrate the Lord's Day and not the Sabbath as a free observance.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Whether you are intentionally doing this or not, this error needs to be corrected.

Lawlessness is, yes, a general term, there is no necessary connection to the Law of Moses - you are reading such a connection in to support your position.
I agree there is an error but I see you have not addressed it.

You stated commandment “thou shalt not covet” is not the law of God, but you never proved this through scripture.

Paul defines what sin is and said he would not know sin and coveting if God‘s law did not say thou shalt not covet Romans 7:7 found in the Ten Commandments Exodus 20:17.

Jesus in His own words said those who practice lawlessness (sin 1 John 3:4, Romans 7:7) will not be in His kingdom. Matthew 7:23

We see the parallel of this at His Second Cowing that those who do (keep) His commandments enter into the gates of Heaven Revelation 22:14 but outside are the lawless Revelation 22:15

The teaching that we are free to be lawless would make the sacrifice of Jesus in vain. If there was no law Jesus would not need to sacrifice Himself for us breaking the law (the wages of sin is death) and if there was no law we would not need grace and if we do need grace for the forgiveness of sin (breaking the law) than we no longer need a Savior so who do you think wants us to believe we do not need to keep God’s law and scripture tells us, its not God but His adversary Revelation 17:12. We should be doing what enrages the devil and not what break’s God’s heart.
 
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EclipseEventSigns

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Ok, no, we are not agreed. All sabbaths, both the 7th day AND the feast day sabbaths were of the same importance. They all NEEDED to be observed. They were all part of God's covenant law given to the Israelites at Mt. Sinai and expected to be followed to the letter. This is exactly why it is such a big deal what Paul was saying in Colossians. Living in Christ frees you from all those sabbath keeping laws - the 7th day and the feast days. All of them. No longer needed or required. All fulfilled. Done. Finished. Complete. End of story.
However....you are free to keep them as a love offering to God. That actually was God's original intent to begin with.
 
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EclipseEventSigns

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I didn't. Please read my comment again.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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We went through this already, Col 2:14 gives the context to Col 2:15-17 built sadly many choose to ignore these important details.

Yes, the Sabbath is God’s original intent which is why it goes back to us worshipping in His presence every Sabbath for eternity. Sin separated man from God and the saints Revelation 14:12 will be united with Him soon and Sabbath worship will once again be in His presence until then we keep His Sabbath holy through His Spirit.
\
 
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EclipseEventSigns

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Your other comment which I was addressing specifically states: "The other sabbath(s) are ordinances, not a commandment," This is not correct. That's what I addressed.
"And you shall observe the Feast of Unleavened Bread, for on this very day I brought your hosts out of the land of Egypt. Therefore you shall observe this day, throughout your generations, as a statute forever." Exodus 12:17. Pretty much a commandment, I'd say.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Your other comment which I was addressing specifically states: "The other sabbath(s) are ordinances, not a commandment," This is not correct.
Well you haven’t proved that the annual sabbaths are one of the Ten Commandments or a commandment and not an ordinance as the scriptures shows
Post in thread 'WHY THE LORD'S DAY IS NOT SATURDAY'
WHY THE LORD'S DAY IS NOT SATURDAY
Where does it say “commandments”

Not everything is a commandment Neh 9:13……and the annual sabbaths are not in the Ten Commandments, but the weekly Sabbath is, written personally by God. There is a difference and why context matters Col 2:14-17
 
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Leaf473

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Of course He was a Jew. It says "to redeem those under the law"...why would He need to redeem them if it means what you say it means? Redemption from the curse...death.
He would need to redeem the others born under the law because the others, like us, broke the law and thus were under its curse.

Jesus didn't break the law, yet he was still under it. He became under its curse either by being so designated by his father, or because he hung on a tree. Two possibilities.
 
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trophy33

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Almost every Christian denomination on Earth affirms the continued *"unit of TEN"
a) evangelical churches do not affirm that
b) reformed churches do not affirm that
c) neither charismatic nor pentecostal churches affirm that
d) Roman churches are special, they morphed it to Sunday, with similar laws and rules - so, kind of, but not in the way you would like
e) baptists in continental Europe do not keep Sabbath; I do not know which baptists adopted the London Baptist Confession, if some branches in England/USA.
 
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EclipseEventSigns

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Not one of the 10 commandments? What? How is that of any difference? A command of God is a command.
 
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HIM

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Here is a Link. I have been running theword on my computer for about 15 years with zero issues. It is free bible software. If you download pm me and I will help you navigate to download the packages that apply to your specific needs. They have modules that you can pay for, but the free ones will get you what you need. The only one I paid for is the BDAG and I have close to100 free resources in this program that I picked.
 
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HIM

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Not one of the 10 commandments? What? How is that of any difference? A command of God is a command.
Colossians 2:14-16 context is in respect to the hand writing to the ordinances or by the ordinances not the ordinances themselves.
 
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HIM

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That's interesting, though it may not be a slam dunk.

Did you use an online resource to find those occurrences?

What is the difference? I guess it would have to do with what your definition of sin.

So some of you think John's understanding of what sin is was different than Paul's?

Rom 7:7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.

John is speaking of willful sin. He says, "whosoever commits the sin also commits the wickedness. And the sin is the wickedness."
 
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HIM

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Let's take a look.
Matt 7:23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.
Matt 13:41 The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity;
Matt 23:28 Even so ye also outwardly appear righteous unto men, but within ye are full of hypocrisy and iniquity.
Matt 24:12 And because iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold.
Rom 4:7 Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
Rom 6:19 I speak after the manner of men because of the infirmity of your flesh: for as ye have yielded your members servants to uncleanness and to iniquity unto iniquity; even so now yield your members servants to righteousness unto holiness.
2Cor 6:14 Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness?
2Thess 2:7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
Titus 2:14 Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
Heb 1:9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
Heb 8:12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
Heb 10:17 And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.
1John 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.

Now shall we just focus on what Paul said and in it's context?

He says that he had not known sin but by the law. And respect to it he says we have been made free from sin and have become slaves to righteousness wherein before we were slaves to iniquity. And iniquity is being said in respect to sin which is known by the law. So you think John and Paul were of different spirits and disagreed?

Rom 6:18 Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness.
Rom 6:19 I speak after the manner of men because of the infirmity of your flesh: for as ye have yielded your members servants to uncleanness and to iniquity unto iniquity; even so now yield your members servants to righteousness unto holiness.
Rom 6:20 For when ye were the servants of sin, ye were free from righteousness.

Rom 7:7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.

Maybe look to how Jesus used the word next or the writer of Hebrews?
 
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Leaf473

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as I said the substance is missing -- address the points with support for your claims/accusations etc.
I don't recall making any accusations. If you believe I did, please cite the post(s) where you believe that happened.

I did claim that the law has a shadow, yes:
Σκιὰν ἔχων ὁ νόμος


 
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Leaf473

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The person I was talking to had asked what the difference was between breaking the law of Moses and being out of control.

I cited drinking to access as an example. Being drunk is not addressed in the letters of the law of Moses.

As you point out, it is addressed in places like Corinthians.

So 1 Corinthians 3 supports the idea that anomia in 1 John 3:4 could mean things other than breaking the law of Moses.

Good to hear from you I thought maybe you'd left the thread.
 
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Leaf473

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Yes it would as I explained...
Right, and then bringing it around to 1 John 3:4, as I just talked about with @BobRyan, anomia could refer to things like drinking to excess. That would be living without restraint or self-control, but not necessarily breaking the law of Moses.
 
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Leaf473

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Yes it would as I explained...
Or if you're saying that sin is transgression of the principles of the law of Moses,
then Yes, I'd agree with that, too. That could be a possible meaning of anomia
 
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Leaf473

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It says LAW...WORKS...
Yes, it talks about What kind of law: the law of works or the law of faith.

Another example of a place where nomos means something different than the law of Moses. This appears to be a quote from Psalms:
John 15:25
But this happened so that the word may be fulfilled which was written in their law, ‘They hated me without a cause.’
 
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