Oh, sorry.
I think they are missing the point; they have inflated the significance of a pastoral non-church activity that has been happening for some time in the USA anyway, and probably elsewhere.
OT Canon is originated from the Jews
NT Canon is originated from Christians
Judaism in its present form did not exist at or before the time of Christ
No, they have strict control of everything, from Pharisees to the Great Sanhedrin! Please read Josephus.
In 2 Timothy 3:16 it says “All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting, and training in righteousness, so that the servant of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work” (ESV)The same cannot be said of early church fathers. They frequently paraphrased portions of the Apocrypha and even call the writer of 2 Esdras “another of the prophets” (Epistle of Barnabas 12:1). During Origen’s day, the Apocrypha became a normal part of the liturgy in church. But by the time Augustine and Jerome came on the scene, two opposing views emerged on these writings. Augustine argued for the canonicity of the Apocrypha, drawing from it frequently in his writings. Jerome, however, pushed back and distinguished between canonical and ecclesiastical texts. Canonical texts informed faith and practice, but ecclesiastical texts were to be read in the church solely for edification, not to construct doctrine. Ultimately, the Council of Carthage (AD 397) sided with Augustine, but the two views remained in the church until the Reformation.
I happen to have room for that interpretation in my personal theology. I think sometimes it is not scripture that is incorrect, but people's interpretation. e.g. Both ECT (eternal conscious torment) and CI (conditional immortality) adherents believe the bible is the word of God, but simply differ in their interpretation.Additionally, these books contain theological and historical errors. For example, the Book of Wisdom indicates that God created the world out of preexisting matter (11:17) which contradicts the rest of Scripture’s teaching that God created the world out of nothing.
You are missing the "If it is".At that time, this meant, at the very least, the Septuagint (LXX). Often it is quoted word for word by NT authors. So that is my "old testament". If it is in the LXX, it is part of what is referred to in 2 Timothy as "all scripture".
Or am I missing something?
Parts that are quoted in Greek and match the Greek text of the LXX. My point really is that 2 Timothy sez "all scripture", not "scripture quoted by Jesus."You are missing the "If it is".
What parts of the Septuagint are quoted word for word in the New Testament?
Do you think they are talking about the same thing, in context? The entire chapter is an interesting read. Seems kinda wise, like Proverbs. I'll need to study it more when I get my ESV version. The KJV is really hard to interpret."He that trusteth in his own heart is a fool: but whoso walketh wisely, he shall be delivered." [Proverbs 28:26]
“And let the counsel of thine own heart stand: for there is no man more faithful unto thee than it.” [Ecclesiasticus 37:13]
One book is lying; the other is not.
We happen to disagree - sorryParts that are quoted in Greek and match the Greek text of the LXX. My point really is that 2 Timothy sez "all scripture", not "scripture quoted by Jesus."
"He that trusteth in his own heart is a fool: but whoso walketh wisely, he shall be delivered." [Proverbs 28:26]
“And let the counsel of thine own heart stand: for there is no man more faithful unto thee than it.” [Ecclesiasticus 37:13]
One book is lying; the other is not.
Proverbs 26:5 Answer a fool according to his folly, lest he be wise in his own conceit."He that trusteth in his own heart is a fool: but whoso walketh wisely, he shall be delivered." [Proverbs 28:26]
“And let the counsel of thine own heart stand: for there is no man more faithful unto thee than it.” [Ecclesiasticus 37:13]
One book is lying; the other is not.
That's why Proverbs 26:5 isn't in the Protestant Bible.Proverbs 26:5 Answer a fool according to his folly, lest he be wise in his own conceit.
Proverbs 26:4 Answer not a fool according to his folly, lest thou also be like unto him.
should I apply your stated rule? "One book is lying; the other is not." Just substitute "proverb" for "book".
The quotes are from the KJV.That's why Proverbs 26:5 isn't in the Protestant Bible.
This might help clarify my position on the whole thing: 1 Enoch being quoted in the new testament. And this one specifically: Does Jude quote Enoch?We happen to disagree - sorry
That was actually part of the debate on the canonicity of Jude. There were those who argued against it because of just that. But canonicity was based on five elements not just one. It is the ONLY reference in 27 books that reference the Apocryphal writings. Not one of the others is ever mentioned in the New Testament and the Scripture they had at the time of the writing of Timothy (90ad) included the Hebrew Old Testament, which did NOT have the Apocryphal books either.This might help clarify my position on the whole thing: 1 Enoch being quoted in the new testament. And this one specifically: Does Jude quote Enoch?
one quote in 27 books is not proof of anything my friend. You cannot intelligently assign canonization to multiple books based off a single quotation in the entirety of the New Testament.Now, I know Enoch is not in the LXX, but it does address the issue of "non-canonical" works being quoted in scripture. I think one could even argue that is what Jesus was doing in the parable of Lazarus and the rich man, regarding the view of "heaven and hell" in that parable. That is, it matched a common myth of the day.
Pssst..... the King James Bible is the "Protestant Bible" one of the oldest ones.The quotes are from the KJV.
But if you prefer the ESV (protestant bible)
(Proverbs 26:4 ESV) Answer not a fool according to his folly, lest you be like him yourself.
(Proverbs 26:5 ESV) Answer a fool according to his folly, lest he be wise in his own eyes.
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