Why not Jesus?

[SilverBlade]

This is an issue I've been struggling with since earlier this year.

Most of my life I've heard of "Jesus', but it's only since the beginning of 2013 that I've come across Yeshua/Joshua/Yahushua as possibilities for the proper name of the Messiah.

I've read that the name 'Jesus' could be somehow related (etymology-wise) to the greek God Zeus, as the name 'Jesus' originated in Greek.

Now me, not wanting to pray improperly, or have any 'other' gods before Yahweh and not wanting to be praying or worshiping someone else, became upset that I could have been praying improperly my entire life.

Of course, the more I read about which name is the most correct to use, became more confused than ever!.

As for what is the 'proper' name to use, I have no clue. I've read it's best to use the original Hebrew name, and I've also read that 'Jesus' is acceptable because of translation from older/near dead languages into more modern languages.

I really wish I could find a good, solid, irrefutable answer on this.

 

[Elder 111]

This is an issue I've been struggling with since earlier this year.

Most of my life I've heard of "Jesus', but it's only since the beginning of 2013 that I've come across Yeshua/Joshua/Yahushua as possibilities for the proper name of the Messiah.

I've read that the name 'Jesus' could be somehow related (etymology-wise) to the greek God Zeus, as the name 'Jesus' originated in Greek.

Now me, not wanting to pray improperly, or have any 'other' gods before Yahweh and not wanting to be praying or worshiping someone else, became upset that I could have been praying improperly my entire life.

Of course, the more I read about which name is the most correct to use, became more confused than ever!.

As for what is the 'proper' name to use, I have no clue. I've read it's best to use the original Hebrew name, and I've also read that 'Jesus' is acceptable because of translation from older/near dead languages into more modern languages.

I really wish I could find a good, solid, irrefutable answer on this.

It does not matter what others may say about the name. Jesus is the name we have, and most of all God knows the heart. He knows you are calling on Him.

 

[Elder 111]

It is disturbing that the majority have voted that it does not matter what the scriptures are saying. This is God's message to us. Does it not matter what He is telling us and what we should know as truth?

 

[MoreCoffee]

Hebrews 4:8.
In some versions this passage say "For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not afterward have spoken of another day.."
Others say "For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day."

1. Which is more logical in the context of the chapter, Jesus or Joshua?
2. Why would the word (Greek) Iēsous be translated Jesus 971 times in the new testament Jesus and this once be translated Joshua?
3. What connection does Joshua has with God's rest day?
4. Why is verse 14 not also translated Joshua? Same Greek: Iēsous.

Which do you accept and Why?

In Greek Hebrews 4:8 looks like this εἰ γὰρ αὐτοὺς ᾿Ιησοῦς κατέπαυσεν, οὐκ ἂν περὶ ἄλλης ἐλάλει μετὰ ταῦτα ἡμέρας

The word in question is Ιησους which in English letters is Iesous. That is the same word that is spelled Jesus in all the rest of the new testament when Jesus Christ's name is present.

The passage in question is about Joshua (the old testament successor of Moses; the man who lead Israel into Canaan and played the leading role in its conquest). The reason why so many translations in English have "Joshua" here is so that readers can easily and unambiguously see that it is the old testament man (Joshua) who is in view and not Jesus Christ.

Some older translations into English say "Jesus" in this passage and that is more accurate as a translation (really a transliteration) of the Greek text. Using "Joshua" is helpful but it is not an accurate reflection of the spelling in the text.

 

[MoreCoffee]

Do you get the same understanding from the text with either name being used?

Albert Barnes says: For if Jesus - Margin, “That is, Joshua.” The Syriac renders it, “Joshua the son of Nun.” “Jesus” is the Greek mode of writing “Joshua,” and there can be no doubt that Joshua is here intended. The object is to prove that Joshua did not give the people of God such a rest as to make it improper to speak of a “rest” after that time. “If Joshua had given them a complete and final rest; if by his conducting them to the promised land all had been done which had been contemplated by the promise, then it would not have been alluded to again, as it was in the time of David.” Joshua “did” give them a rest in the promised land; but it was not all which was intended, and it did not exclude the promise of another and more important rest.

The reference to Margin is the marginal note in the 1611 editions of the KJV where it says "That is, Joshua." It is a note from the KJV translators to the reader.

 

[Elder 111]

In Greek Hebrews 4:8 looks like this εἰ γὰρ αὐτοὺς ᾿Ιησοῦς κατέπαυσεν, οὐκ ἂν περὶ ἄλλης ἐλάλει μετὰ ταῦτα ἡμέρας

The word in question is Ιησους which in English letters is Iesous. That is the same word that is spelled Jesus in all the rest of the new testament when Jesus Christ's name is present.

The passage in question is about Joshua (the old testament successor of Moses; the man who lead Israel into Canaan and played the leading role in its conquest). The reason why so many translations in English have "Joshua" here is so that readers can easily and unambiguously see that it is the old testament man (Joshua) who is in view and not Jesus Christ.

Some older translations into English say "Jesus" in this passage and that is more accurate as a translation (really a transliteration) of the Greek text. Using "Joshua" is helpful but it is not an accurate reflection of the spelling in the text.

To insert Joshua in this passage is an evil act. Context denies any such thing. Verse 4
For he spake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all his works.
There is no indication of a place but time. A day.
Again in verse 8 not a place but time: A day. What did Joshua had to do with giving the Jews the Sabbath? It was Jesus!
Verse 8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day

 

[Elder 111]

In Greek Hebrews 4:8 looks like this εἰ γὰρ αὐτοὺς ᾿Ιησοῦς κατέπαυσεν, οὐκ ἂν περὶ ἄλλης ἐλάλει μετὰ ταῦτα ἡμέρας

The word in question is Ιησους which in English letters is Iesous. That is the same word that is spelled Jesus in all the rest of the new testament when Jesus Christ's name is present.

The passage in question is about Joshua (the old testament successor of Moses; the man who lead Israel into Canaan and played the leading role in its conquest). The reason why so many translations in English have "Joshua" here is so that readers can easily and unambiguously see that it is the old testament man (Joshua) who is in view and not Jesus Christ.

Some older translations into English say "Jesus" in this passage and that is more accurate as a translation (really a transliteration) of the Greek text. Using "Joshua" is helpful but it is not an accurate reflection of the spelling in the text.

This passage of scripture clearly states that God Sabbath's still remains. In order for us retain or denial of the Sabbath we have to deny what this Chapter clearly speaks to.
Such acts are not new, for the Jews were able to convince themselves, even to this day, that Jesus is not the Christ. We as Christians look in disbelief at them in this respect, but here we are doing the same thing.
The bible described where and how Jesus would come and He came exactly as scripture said, and the Jews rejected Him by rejecting the plain teaching of the scriptures. Satan now is successful in getting us again to reject the plain stated things of scripture to again reject that which is plainly of God.
Fantastic!

 

[MoreCoffee]

Hebrews 4:8.
In some versions this passage say "For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not afterward have spoken of another day.."
Others say "For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day."

1. Which is more logical in the context of the chapter, Jesus or Joshua?
2. Why would the word (Greek) Iēsous be translated Jesus 971 times in the new testament Jesus and this once be translated Joshua?
3. What connection does Joshua has with God's rest day?
4. Why is verse 14 not also translated Joshua? Same Greek: Iēsous.

Which do you accept and Why?

In Greek Hebrews 4:8 looks like this εἰ γὰρ αὐτοὺς ᾿Ιησοῦς κατέπαυσεν, οὐκ ἂν περὶ ἄλλης ἐλάλει μετὰ ταῦτα ἡμέρας

The word in question is Ιησους which in English letters is Iesous. That is the same word that is spelled Jesus in all the rest of the new testament when Jesus Christ's name is present.

The passage in question is about Joshua (the old testament successor of Moses; the man who lead Israel into Canaan and played the leading role in its conquest). The reason why so many translations in English have "Joshua" here is so that readers can easily and unambiguously see that it is the old testament man (Joshua) who is in view and not Jesus Christ.

Some older translations into English say "Jesus" in this passage and that is more accurate as a translation (really a transliteration) of the Greek text. Using "Joshua" is helpful but it is not an accurate reflection of the spelling in the text.

To insert Joshua in this passage is an evil act. Context denies any such thing. Verse 4

For he spake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all his works.​

There is no indication of a place but time. A day.

Again in verse 8 not a place but time: A day. What did Joshua had to do with giving the Jews the Sabbath? It was Jesus!

Verse 8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day​

Since Jesus and Joshua are merely alternate transliterations of the same name in Greek (and in Hebrew too) your claims that spelling the name as "Joshua" is evil is absurd. And as was said in another post the purpose for using "Joshua" instead of "Jesus" in verse eight is to make it easier for the reader of an English translation of the passage to see that it is Joshua the son of Nun who led Israel into the promised land and so gave them a foretaste of the rest that Christ alone brings in its fullness. That is the purpose of the argument in Hebrews chapters three and four. The beginning of chapter four expresses the thought well when it says,

Therefore, we should be afraid, lest the promise of entering into his rest may be relinquished, and some of you may be judged to be lacking. For this was announced to us in a similar manner as to them. But the mere hearing of the word did not benefit them, since it was not joined together with a faith in those things that they heard. For we who have believed shall enter into rest, in the same manner as he said:

"So it is as I have sworn in my wrath: They shall not enter into my rest!"​

And certainly, this is when the works from the foundation of the world have been finished. For, in a certain place, he spoke about the seventh day in this manner:

"And God rested on the seventh day from all his works."​

And in this place again:

"They shall not enter into my rest!"​

Therefore, this is because certain ones remain who are to enter into it, and those to whom it was announced first did not enter into it, because of unbelief. Again, he defines a certain day, after so much time, saying in David,

"Today,"​

just as it was stated above,

"If today you hear his voice, harden not your hearts."​

For if Jesus had offered them rest, he would never have spoken, afterward, about another day. And so, there remains a Sabbath of rest for the people of God. For whoever has entered into his rest, the same has also rested from his works, just as God did from his. Therefore, let us hasten to enter into that rest, so that no one may fall into the same example of unbelief. For the Word of God is living and effective: more piercing than any two-edged sword, reaching to the division even between the soul and the spirit, even between the joints and the marrow, and so it discerns the thoughts and intentions of the heart. And there is no created thing that is invisible to his sight. For all things are naked and open to the eyes of him, about whom we are speaking. (Hebrews 4:1-13)​

The "them" in the opening words is the people who had left Egypt with Moses and heard the Law given at the foot of Mt Sinai. That generation died; they were thus denied the opportunity to enter God's rest in the land that God promised to their ancestor Abraham and his descendants. And so the promise of rest remained open and unfulfilled. That is why the author of Hebrews quotes from Psalm 95:11 to make his argument. The psalm was written many centuries after Joshua the son of Nun had led Israel into Canaan yet a rest still remained to be claimed. That rest is open to Christians. Every Christian claims it when they "rested from his works, just as God did from his".

 

[Keachian]

To insert Joshua in this passage is an evil act. Context denies any such thing. Verse 4
For he spake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all his works.
There is no indication of a place but time. A day.
Again in verse 8 not a place but time: A day. What did Joshua had to do with giving the Jews the Sabbath? It was Jesus!
Verse 8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day

No it's not, and I don't think you understand the thrust of the passage, let's go back to the start of the discussion, that of Jesus' superiority as Prophet, this idea is first stated in the Epistle in 1:1; "At many times, in sundry ways, God spoke to us through the prophets, but now at the close of the age he has spoken to us by his Son." after a discussion of Christ's superiority to angels 1:5-2:18 we come back to this theme of Christ's superiority as Prophet, it is in this context that we have the discussion about God's rest, specifically which prophet finally delivered the Rest of God unto the Children of God, the Writer sets up three possibilities for what he considers the rest of God: The Sabbath, the Land, and the freedom from striving to be perfect.

The Sabbath; Since the discussion is couched in an exegesis of Psalm 95 and the focus on v11 thereof the comparison of Ps 95:11 to Gen 2:1-3 rules out the SDA falsehood that the Sabbath delivered at Sinai is the same as what God had in Gen 2:1-3. The discussion also considers that there has been a change of when the people of God can enter into God's rest from the Sabbath to the day called 'Today' (Hb 3:13-15)

Thus we come to the discussion on the Land, this is what the background history of Psalm 95 is dealing with, specifically v10, it is recalling that when Joshua and Caleb came back from scouting out the land the Israelites rebelled against God causing him to exile them in the wilderness for 40 years, they were not able to enter into the rest of God (that is the Land) but they were still able to enter the Sabbath. Thus when we come to Joshua this is what is going on; Joshua gave the people the Land, and though David (who wrote the Psalm) experienced this rest, he through the Holy Spirit looks forward to this end of the age, where he charges us to not harden our hearts but enter into God's rest as long as it is called today.

And so our rest as Christians and the Children of God is Christ himself. (Hb 3:6, 12-15, 4:1-3, 10-11) I exhort you, while it is still called today, do not harden your heart, but enter into the rest that God has prepared for you from the foundation of the world.

 

[HolyGuardianAngels]

I believe it is proper to say: Jesus the Christ
or Jesus Christ

 

[MrLuther]

Hebrews 4:8.
In some versions this passage say "For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not afterward have spoken of another day.."
Others say "For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day."

1. Which is more logical in the context of the chapter, Jesus or Joshua?
2. Why would the word (Greek) Iēsous be translated Jesus 971 times in the new testament Jesus and this once be translated Joshua?
3. What connection does Joshua has with God's rest day?
4. Why is verse 14 not also translated Joshua? Same Greek: Iēsous.

Which do you accept and Why?

Exactly. It's the very same name. "Yeshua". Doesn't really make any kind of difference how you translate it, except in terms of "readability". Also, to seperate Jesus, God Incarnate from Joshua, commander of Israel, in the minds of people. Consciously or not, it probably does register, and better try to avoid it.

 

[Elder 111]

Since Jesus and Joshua are merely alternate transliterations of the same name in Greek (and in Hebrew too) your claims that spelling the name as "Joshua" is evil is absurd. And as was said in another post the purpose for using "Joshua" instead of "Jesus" in verse eight is to make it easier for the reader of an English translation of the passage to see that it is Joshua the son of Nun who led Israel into the promised land and so gave them a foretaste of the rest that Christ alone brings in its fullness. That is the purpose of the argument in Hebrews chapters three and four. The beginning of chapter four expresses the thought well when it says,

Therefore, we should be afraid, lest the promise of entering into his rest may be relinquished, and some of you may be judged to be lacking. For this was announced to us in a similar manner as to them. But the mere hearing of the word did not benefit them, since it was not joined together with a faith in those things that they heard. For we who have believed shall enter into rest, in the same manner as he said:

"So it is as I have sworn in my wrath: They shall not enter into my rest!"​

And certainly, this is when the works from the foundation of the world have been finished. For, in a certain place, he spoke about the seventh day in this manner:

"And God rested on the seventh day from all his works."​

And in this place again:

"They shall not enter into my rest!"​

Therefore, this is because certain ones remain who are to enter into it, and those to whom it was announced first did not enter into it, because of unbelief. Again, he defines a certain day, after so much time, saying in David,

"Today,"​

just as it was stated above,

"If today you hear his voice, harden not your hearts."​

For if Jesus had offered them rest, he would never have spoken, afterward, about another day. And so, there remains a Sabbath of rest for the people of God. For whoever has entered into his rest, the same has also rested from his works, just as God did from his. Therefore, let us hasten to enter into that rest, so that no one may fall into the same example of unbelief. For the Word of God is living and effective: more piercing than any two-edged sword, reaching to the division even between the soul and the spirit, even between the joints and the marrow, and so it discerns the thoughts and intentions of the heart. And there is no created thing that is invisible to his sight. For all things are naked and open to the eyes of him, about whom we are speaking. (Hebrews 4:1-13)​

The "them" in the opening words is the people who had left Egypt with Moses and heard the Law given at the foot of Mt Sinai. That generation died; they were thus denied the opportunity to enter God's rest in the land that God promised to their ancestor Abraham and his descendants. And so the promise of rest remained open and unfulfilled. That is why the author of Hebrews quotes from Psalm 95:11 to make his argument. The psalm was written many centuries after Joshua the son of Nun had led Israel into Canaan yet a rest still remained to be claimed. That rest is open to Christians. Every Christian claims it when they "rested from his works, just as God did from his".

What rest did the scriptures record God as taking? Answer! The Sabbath.

 

[Elder 111]

The Sabbath; Since the discussion is couched in an exegesis of Psalm 95 and the focus on v11 thereof the comparison of Ps 95:11 to Gen 2:1-3 rules out the SDA falsehood that the Sabbath delivered at Sinai is the same as what God had in Gen 2:1-3. The discussion also considers that there has been a change of when the people of God can enter into God's rest from the Sabbath to the day called 'Today' (Hb 3:13-15)

Is God a liar? Ex 20:
8 Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.
9 Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
10 But the seventh day is the sabbath of the Lord thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:
11 For in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the Lord blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.
It is not SDA's that say so, It is God.

 

[Keachian]

What rest did the scriptures record God as taking? Answer! The Sabbath.

Heb 4:3-4 debunks this myth. God has sworn that the Israelites at Meribah will not enter into his rest, the Writer then links this denial of rest to the Israelites with Gen 2:2-3.

Your argument that Gen 2:2-3 is the Sabbath only holds water if the Israelites were not observing the Sabbath already. We know that the Meribah incident (Ex 17) happens after the sending of Manna and thus after the setting up of the Sabbath observance by Yahweh for the Israelites. (Ex 16, esp. v5) They already had the Sabbath when God swore that they would not enter his Rest, and so like the Writer we should be firm in saying that the Rest of God is not the same as the Sabbath.

 

[Keachian]

Is God a liar? Ex 20:
8 Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.
9 Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
10 But the seventh day is the sabbath of the Lord thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:
11 For in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the Lord blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.
It is not SDA's that say so, It is God.

Is God a liar? Heb 3:
6 Christ is faithful over God’s house as a son. And we are his house if indeed we hold fast our confidence and our boasting in our hope.
12 Take care, brothers, lest there be in any of you an evil, unbelieving heart, leading you to fall away from the living God.
13 But exhort one another every day, as long as it is called “today,” that none of you may be hardened by the deceitfulness of sin.
14 For we have come to share in Christ, if indeed we hold our original confidence firm to the end.
4:1 Therefore, while the promise of entering his rest still stands, let us fear lest any of you should seem to have failed to reach it.
2 For good news came to us just as to them, but the message they heard did not benefit them, because they were not united by faith with those who listened.
3a For we who have believed enter that rest

We are able to enter into God's rest "today" and so we do if we have faith. While the Sabbath command from Sinai was but a remembrance of the creation (for the command implicitly calls one to go back to 'work' on the 8th day) we who believe actually do enter into God's Rest through Christ. It is not just I who says this but God.

 

[MoreCoffee]

Since Jesus and Joshua are merely alternate transliterations of the same name in Greek (and in Hebrew too) your claims that spelling the name as "Joshua" is evil is absurd. And as was said in another post the purpose for using "Joshua" instead of "Jesus" in verse eight is to make it easier for the reader of an English translation of the passage to see that it is Joshua the son of Nun who led Israel into the promised land and so gave them a foretaste of the rest that Christ alone brings in its fullness. That is the purpose of the argument in Hebrews chapters three and four. The beginning of chapter four expresses the thought well when it says,

Therefore, we should be afraid, lest the promise of entering into his rest may be relinquished, and some of you may be judged to be lacking. For this was announced to us in a similar manner as to them. But the mere hearing of the word did not benefit them, since it was not joined together with a faith in those things that they heard. For we who have believed shall enter into rest, in the same manner as he said:

"So it is as I have sworn in my wrath: They shall not enter into my rest!"​

And certainly, this is when the works from the foundation of the world have been finished. For, in a certain place, he spoke about the seventh day in this manner:

"And God rested on the seventh day from all his works."​

And in this place again:

"They shall not enter into my rest!"​

Therefore, this is because certain ones remain who are to enter into it, and those to whom it was announced first did not enter into it, because of unbelief. Again, he defines a certain day, after so much time, saying in David,

"Today,"​

just as it was stated above,

"If today you hear his voice, harden not your hearts."​

For if Jesus had offered them rest, he would never have spoken, afterward, about another day. And so, there remains a Sabbath of rest for the people of God. For whoever has entered into his rest, the same has also rested from his works, just as God did from his. Therefore, let us hasten to enter into that rest, so that no one may fall into the same example of unbelief. For the Word of God is living and effective: more piercing than any two-edged sword, reaching to the division even between the soul and the spirit, even between the joints and the marrow, and so it discerns the thoughts and intentions of the heart. And there is no created thing that is invisible to his sight. For all things are naked and open to the eyes of him, about whom we are speaking. (Hebrews 4:1-13)​

The "them" in the opening words is the people who had left Egypt with Moses and heard the Law given at the foot of Mt Sinai. That generation died; they were thus denied the opportunity to enter God's rest in the land that God promised to their ancestor Abraham and his descendants. And so the promise of rest remained open and unfulfilled. That is why the author of Hebrews quotes from Psalm 95:11 to make his argument. The psalm was written many centuries after Joshua the son of Nun had led Israel into Canaan yet a rest still remained to be claimed. That rest is open to Christians. Every Christian claims it when they "rested from his works, just as God did from his".

What rest did the scriptures record God as taking? Answer! The Sabbath.

It's notable that the reply does not address any aspect of the text of the passage or the post to which it is a reply. Perhaps the author had no answer. So, in the absence of an answer one concludes that Joshua (the son of Nun) is a good explanatory translation of the name in Hebrews 4:8.

 

[Elder 111]

Is God a liar? Heb 3:
6 Christ is faithful over God’s house as a son. And we are his house if indeed we hold fast our confidence and our boasting in our hope.
12 Take care, brothers, lest there be in any of you an evil, unbelieving heart, leading you to fall away from the living God.
13 But exhort one another every day, as long as it is called “today,” that none of you may be hardened by the deceitfulness of sin.
14 For we have come to share in Christ, if indeed we hold our original confidence firm to the end.
4:1 Therefore, while the promise of entering his rest still stands, let us fear lest any of you should seem to have failed to reach it.
2 For good news came to us just as to them, but the message they heard did not benefit them, because they were not united by faith with those who listened.
3a For we who have believed enter that rest

We are able to enter into God's rest "today" and so we do if we have faith. While the Sabbath command from Sinai was but a remembrance of the creation (for the command implicitly calls one to go back to 'work' on the 8th day) we who believe actually do enter into God's Rest through Christ. It is not just I who says this but God.

4 For he spake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all his works.
9 There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God.
10 For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his.

 

[Elder 111]

It's notable that the reply does not address any aspect of the text of the passage or the post to which it is a reply. Perhaps the author had no answer. So, in the absence of an answer one concludes that Joshua (the son of Nun) is a good explanatory translation of the name in Hebrews 4:8.

Of course it is for you will have it no other way.
7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.
Like those that crucified Christ some will only accept the truth when it is too late.
A man dead for 4 days "by now he stinketh". Still others will not believe.
Mat. 7:
21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.
22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?
23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.
It is not that I can not reply but that there no need to. What do you say to a grown man who calls a cat a pig?

 

[MoreCoffee]

Since Jesus and Joshua are merely alternate transliterations of the same name in Greek (and in Hebrew too) your claims that spelling the name as "Joshua" is evil is absurd. And as was said in another post the purpose for using "Joshua" instead of "Jesus" in verse eight is to make it easier for the reader of an English translation of the passage to see that it is Joshua the son of Nun who led Israel into the promised land and so gave them a foretaste of the rest that Christ alone brings in its fullness. That is the purpose of the argument in Hebrews chapters three and four. The beginning of chapter four expresses the thought well when it says,

Therefore, we should be afraid, lest the promise of entering into his rest may be relinquished, and some of you may be judged to be lacking. For this was announced to us in a similar manner as to them. But the mere hearing of the word did not benefit them, since it was not joined together with a faith in those things that they heard. For we who have believed shall enter into rest, in the same manner as he said:

"So it is as I have sworn in my wrath: They shall not enter into my rest!"​

And certainly, this is when the works from the foundation of the world have been finished. For, in a certain place, he spoke about the seventh day in this manner:

"And God rested on the seventh day from all his works."​

And in this place again:

"They shall not enter into my rest!"​

Therefore, this is because certain ones remain who are to enter into it, and those to whom it was announced first did not enter into it, because of unbelief. Again, he defines a certain day, after so much time, saying in David,

"Today,"​

just as it was stated above,

"If today you hear his voice, harden not your hearts."​

For if Jesus had offered them rest, he would never have spoken, afterward, about another day. And so, there remains a Sabbath of rest for the people of God. For whoever has entered into his rest, the same has also rested from his works, just as God did from his. Therefore, let us hasten to enter into that rest, so that no one may fall into the same example of unbelief. For the Word of God is living and effective: more piercing than any two-edged sword, reaching to the division even between the soul and the spirit, even between the joints and the marrow, and so it discerns the thoughts and intentions of the heart. And there is no created thing that is invisible to his sight. For all things are naked and open to the eyes of him, about whom we are speaking. (Hebrews 4:1-13)​

The "them" in the opening words is the people who had left Egypt with Moses and heard the Law given at the foot of Mt Sinai. That generation died; they were thus denied the opportunity to enter God's rest in the land that God promised to their ancestor Abraham and his descendants. And so the promise of rest remained open and unfulfilled. That is why the author of Hebrews quotes from Psalm 95:11 to make his argument. The psalm was written many centuries after Joshua the son of Nun had led Israel into Canaan yet a rest still remained to be claimed. That rest is open to Christians. Every Christian claims it when they "rested from his works, just as God did from his".

What rest did the scriptures record God as taking? Answer! The Sabbath.

It's notable that the reply does not address any aspect of the text of the passage or the post to which it is a reply. Perhaps the author had no answer. So, in the absence of an answer one concludes that Joshua (the son of Nun) is a good explanatory translation of the name in Hebrews 4:8.

Of course it is for you will have it no other way.

7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.​

Like those that crucified Christ some will only accept the truth when it is too late.

A man dead for 4 days "by now he stinketh". Still others will not believe.

Mat. 7:21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.
22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?
23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.​

It is not that I can not reply but that there no need to. What do you say to a grown man who calls a cat a pig?

The above reply is almost entirely unrelated to the text of Hebrews chapter four; it is a non sequitur that appears to confuse the second advent of the Lord Jesus Christ with the rising of Lazarus, brother of Martha and Mary of Bethany, from the dead and some kind of analogy to misidentifying one animal for another that is quite unlike the first. So, once more the reply does not deal with any of the text of Hebrews chapter four. One wonders if the author has any kind of answer that relates to the text of Hebrews chapter four.

 

[Keachian]

4 For he spake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all his works.
9 There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God.
10 For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his.

v4 saying that the Sabbath from Sinai is not the Rest of God, v9-10 saying that the Rest of God is available to the people of God and that they will cease from their works upon entering, there is no talk in this passage that those who enter into the Rest of God will take back up their work on the 8th day. This passage does not support your preconceptions.