Why Is This A Problem???

o_mlly

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But a true divine command deontologist would acknowledge that if we can ascertain that we have properly heard and understood the command, then that command--whatever it is--is moral.

So here, then, the question is "Have we properly heard and understood the command of the moral authority?" and we are comparing this situation with past situations in which the command was more clear in order to determine whether we are properly hearing and understanding the command for this situation.
In the situation the OP described, assuming that description provides all that one needs to know is given in order to make a moral decision, has the bystander who wills to pull the lever properly heard and understood the command to do so as a divine command? Does a divine command ever directly contradict another divine command? Are we divinely commanded to both directly kill innocent persons and not to directly kill innocent persons?

If you believe morality is subjective then you will likely equivocate again on the questions.
 
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RDKirk

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In the situation the OP described, assuming that description provides all that one needs to know is given in order to make a moral decision, has the bystander who wills to pull the lever properly heard and understood the command to do so as a divine command? Does a divine command ever directly contradict another divine command? Are we divinely commanded to both directly kill innocent persons and not to directly kill innocent persons?

If you believe morality is subjective then you will likely equivocate again on the questions.

I have said more than once before that every ethical system has its problems, and I've said before that the problem with divine command deontology is determining whether one has properly heard and understood the command.

Asking the question of "Does this conflict with known divine commands" is one of the tools we use to answer that question.

Divine command deontology is subject to the moral authority.
 
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o_mlly

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... determining whether one has properly heard and understood the command.
The issue is not whether the bystander properly heard and understood the command. The state of the actor's intellect (knowledge of the gravity of the act) and his will (the degree to which he freely acts) is subjective and knowable only to him and God. This aspect relates to the bystander's culpability in his act, not to the objective morality or immorality of the act per se.

The issue is whether the act, independent of any particular actor's intention, state of mind or will, is objectively evil or not. Are you unwilling to categorize the act itself -- pulling the lever that directly kills an innocent person -- as objectively evil or not?
 
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durangodawood

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The issue is not whether the bystander properly heard and understood the command. The state of the actor's intellect (knowledge of the gravity of the act) and his will (the degree to which he freely acts) is subjective and knowable only to him and God. This aspect relates to the bystander's culpability in his act, not to the objective morality or immorality of the act per se....
It sounds like you think there is a valid parallel subjective morality in effect should God privately command a particular person.

As an example, Id think of God's private command to sacrifice Isaac, which Abraham, in his heart, was ready to fulfill - and God being satisfied that Abe would have concluded the task.
 
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o_mlly

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It sounds like you think there is a valid parallel subjective morality in effect should God privately command a particular person.
Only the actor's culpability is "subjective and knowable only to him and God". The objective evil (or goodness) in the act is knowable to all. While we cannot judge the soul of anyone, we can judge the morality of the human act.

Veritatis Splendor (6 August 1993) | John Paul II
It is possible that the evil done as the result of invincible ignorance or a non-culpable error of judgment may not be imputable to the agent; but even in this case it does not cease to be an evil, a disorder in relation to the truth about the good (Veritatis Splendor p. 63).
 
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zippy2006

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Okay, so the added context is the description of the physiological responses. What I quoted was the lead researcher's conclusions about those responses (the only pertinent detail). Your opinion of what those responses means is irrelevant. You're claiming that there is a consensus, and the expert is stating this study only shows "an intense focus".

Regarding the expert in question, “Therefore, Hoehl's study claimed, humans' innate fear of these animals could serve as a defense mechanism.”

Yep, that's another point for me. The specific emotional response you're trying to prove is learned according to the expert you cited. Thanks for the added context.

It’s so cute how you just continually claim victory without any substantiation. To “learn quickly that snakes and spiders are associated with…” means that the association preceded the learning.

Since you pointed out the grammatical error in his quote, I'll cite a study of his so you can see that I interpreted correctly what he was saying: David Rakison
We have a propensity to focus on certain shapes. While focused, we are more likely to learn fear if something presents as dangerous.

So here is what your source says:

We, along with other theorists, propose that humans’ perceptual template serves two purposes, one in infancy and early childhood and one throughout the lifespan. First, it facilitates learning early in life such that fear responses can be rapidly associated with the stimulus in question when conspecifics’ behavior is observed... Second, in childhood and beyond it allows for rapid identification of a potential threat. This automatic ‘‘attention-grabbing’’ characteristic of fear-relevant stimuli could engender quicker reaction to threatening situations. Work on adult humans’ ability to detect quickly fear-relevant stimuli supports this view.

The point is that there are fear-relevant stimuli, not merely that we are more likely to learn fear when focused, lol. Now one debate is about whether fear-relevant stimuli or stress responses count as fear in themselves. Whatever the answer to that question, it doesn’t affect our argument. You claimed that we are motivated by pleasure and pain. I claimed that we are motivated by deeper things, such as desire and aversion. Whether or not we want to classify inherent stress responses as fear, you’re still wrong. Either way, the inherent response to fear-relevant stimuli presents a case where we are not being motivated by pleasure and pain.

Heck, my point was about aversion, not fear. Since fear is arguably based on pain, the fear-relevant stimuli better supports my initial point than fear would have. The pre-experiential infant is influenced by fear-relevant stimuli in a way that has nothing to do with anticipation of pleasure or pain. This proves my point, it doesn’t undermine it.

But it's not even clear why you would be interested in this case. Indeed, upon losing the argument about the infant you would probably just claim that the pre-cognitive baby is not acting rationally, just as the man who dives in front of the bullets is not "acting rationally."

Here's another source. Aposematic

Your link is broken.

Those aren't the same thing as fear. You must really need for our feelings about second order things to be innate for your argument to work, huh?

This was just a minor tangent that you decided was super important, and now that we have followed it to its bitter end it turns out that you are wrong. Again. Usually nit-pickers at least manage to win the petty points they pick. :D

You didn't "point out why pleasure fails". You just keep spitting out examples of things you personally can't imagine have anything to do with pleasure. You even got to the point where you had folks not even seeking anymore, but merely acting without thinking, to show that folks aren't always seeking pleasure. Okay, but the reason we act the way we do is because we've associated certain kinds of acts with pleasure.

Sure I did. I pointed to scenarios where the action is clearly not motivated by pleasure and you claimed those scenarios don’t count. You claimed that the person who sacrifices their life is either acting for pleasure without knowing it or else not acting for any rational reason at all.

Ever heard of "So's Law"? You always strawman when you get desperate. I hope it's just because you stop thinking so clearly when you feel you're losing and it isn't because you're lashing out at me since you know it irritates me so. (see what I did there?)

Nah, this is just like last time when I demonstrated beyond the shadow of a doubt that you were committing the logical fallacy of affirming the consequent (link). You just ignored it and pretended it didn’t happen.

Running around the internet smashing all the kids over the head with arguments when they don’t know the difference between a syllogism and a sausage is as useful as running around America smashing all the kids over the head with a stalk of celery when they don’t know the difference between nutrition and Nutella. I make a counterargument and you flounder and make irrational assertions. At that point I’m done. Nothing more needs to be said. If you want to hold that “the vast majority of our actions are irrational then you can go with that.” If your unfalsifiable dogma about pleasure and pain is that important to you then there is obviously no point in arguing.

The difficulty is that you are like a dog distracted by a squirrel. You contentiously latched onto an argument about innate aversion and convinced yourself that everything hinged on that argument. You didn't maintain perspective or pay attention to how the argument fit into the bigger picture. It is a classic case of eristic.
 
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durangodawood

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Only the actor's culpability is "subjective and knowable only to him and God". The objective evil (or goodness) in the act is knowable to all. While we cannot judge the soul of anyone, we can judge the morality of the human act.

Veritatis Splendor (6 August 1993) | John Paul II
It is possible that the evil done as the result of invincible ignorance or a non-culpable error of judgment may not be imputable to the agent; but even in this case it does not cease to be an evil, a disorder in relation to the truth about the good (Veritatis Splendor p. 63).
But in a world of deontological morality, doesnt God's command make the act morally correct?

And in the case of Abraham and Isaac, God has let us see into Abe's mind. He has made the command and Abe's reaction objective to all by enshrining it in the Bible.
 
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Estrid

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But in a world of deontological morality, doesnt God's command make the act morally correct?

And in the case of Abraham and Isaac, God has let us see into Abe's mind. He has made the command and Abe's reaction objective to all by enshrining it in the Bible.

To all?
 
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RDKirk

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But in a world of deontological morality, doesnt God's command make the act morally correct?

Yes. Within the deontological framework, a correct act is one that fulfills duty to the moral authority. If that duty is obedience, then obedience.

And in the case of Abraham and Isaac, God has let us see into Abe's mind. He has made the command and Abe's reaction objective to all by enshrining it in the Bible.

The book of Hebrews tells us that Abraham--believing absolutely in God's promise to raise a nation out of Isaac--believed that God would raise Isaac from the dead. Thus, in Abraham's mind, the sacrifice was never really going to be a sacrifice, but a test of his belief in God's promise to raise a nation out of Isaac.
 
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durangodawood

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.....The book of Hebrews tells us that Abraham--believing absolutely in God's promise to raise a nation out of Isaac--believed that God would raise Isaac from the dead. Thus, in Abraham's mind, the sacrifice was never really going to be a sacrifice, but a test of his belief in God's promise to raise a nation out of Isaac.
Well the story says "Then he reached out his hand and took the knife to slay his son."

So despite whatever resurrection may have been in the offing, Abe was going to kill his son - which many of us here, even some Christians, would take as objectively immoral.
 
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zippy2006

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@zippy2006 Dodging questions a second time and doubling down on your strawman? I guess you are done.

I am not interested in getting into a 5-page debate with you over whether the soldier who covers a grenade does so for the sake of pleasure. I don't have that much time to waste at the moment.
 
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Moral Orel

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I am not interested in getting into a 5-page debate with you over whether the soldier who covers a grenade does so for the sake of pleasure. I don't have that much time to waste at the moment.
:rolleyes: You scold me for focusing on stuff that doesn't matter to your argument, but refuse to tell me anything else. :rolleyes:

And I know you don't believe me since I only got the Associate's degree in psychology and all, but you don't understand those studies, and you're wrong.
 
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zippy2006

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@Moral Orel - I just don't see any use for a prolonged conversation on such a strange thesis. Lots of self-sacrificial acts are not for the sake of pleasure; lots of people enjoy a great deal of pleasure and don't constantly desire more--at least in certain moments of fulfillment or satisfaction; many evolutionary motives, such as the stress response to fear-relevant stimuli, are based on survival, not pleasure, etc. The thesis that every human act is for the sake of pleasure only makes sense until one thinks about it a bit more, and then it doesn't.

I think the same critique holds of happiness, although not quite as obviously. I have no onus to provide an alternative when I disprove a hypothesis, but my alternative was presented in my first post when I quoted Thomas Aquinas.
 
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Moral Orel

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The thesis that every human act is for the sake of pleasure
Who's thesis is that? Not mine. It's cute when you declare victory over arguments that you made up.
many evolutionary motives, such as the stress response to fear-relevant stimuli
lol Motives? They're autonomic!
 
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Estrid

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Who's thesis is that? Not mine. It's cute when you declare victory over arguments that you made up.

lol Motives? They're autonomic!

"Evolutionary motives". Didn't you get that far in Psych?
Must be in a upper division course. :D
 
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