Druweid,
If neither should be preferred over the other, then what should you call these commands but arbitrary?
I presume you would not simply take it on faith to prefer one over the other, because that essentially renders all theistic judgment no better off than subjectivism.
Now, if you son asked you why he should obey, then I would certainly believe that you are obligated to provide an explanation. If you would reject to idea of providing any further explanation than "because I said so" to explain any of your actions, you would be hardpressed to find a reason to be displeased when your son does not obey for reasons no further explained than "because I dont want to" - that is, unless you can find a good reason to prefer your command over your sons disobediance (and we are taken full circle right back to where we started).
I say this not because I was an incredibly disobediant child, but because I am a serious moral theorist. An unexplained set of commands is no better off than an unexplained set of competing commands - neither are morally prescriptive; and a set commands with explanations like "unknown reasons" is no better off than a set commands with no explanations at all, and literally no better off than rejecting all forms of explanation for morality altogether (this would be kind of nihilism).
However, I am certain that you dont make meaningless commands, I'm certain when you command something to your child, you obviously do so to prevent something bad from happening to him, whatever it may be (or alternatively, you command him to reaffirm that more good things occur).
That being said, there are obvious reasons why a god or anyone would consider stealing and murder to be wrong - because it causes gratuitous suffering (and such people who steal and murder should be punished to prevent further gratuitous suffering).
Now, if homosexuality should be considered immoral, certainly this implies some evil is being prevented, and if so what is it? (Perhaps someone would say homosexuality is an evil in itself, but that would obviously beg the question. Perhaps homosexuality is forbidden to prevent people from suffering the wrath of God, but then that would be take us full circle right back to the beginning, and we'd have to ask why God disapproves of it in the first place.)
If you have morality that has no explained reasoning behind it, then you cannot have morality by all definitions and implications of the word. You cannot bind anyone to any degree of morality without an explanation. And you cannot consider any action to be any worse or more preferable than any other action if no explanations are provided.These tenets hold regardless of whether a being is infallible or not.
Hello!Druweid said:Greetings!
Consider the idea that someone can believe that God does not command homosexuality is wrong. Now, that we have two conflicting commands believed to have come from the same infallible God, who should we prefer, and why?Druweid said:Simply stating "It's God's will," establishes that it is not arbitrary. And at no point did I mean to imply there was no reason behind it, only that God has chosen to not reveal the reasons. Christians take it on faith that whatever the reason must be, it is infallible.
If neither should be preferred over the other, then what should you call these commands but arbitrary?
I presume you would not simply take it on faith to prefer one over the other, because that essentially renders all theistic judgment no better off than subjectivism.
I presume you have reasons, perhaps you are looking out for your sons safety or perhaps you'd like to see the food sitting on the table not go wasted. I also presume you dont burden your son with reasonless commands, because there is a good amount of authority that would argue such commands are unethical. I also presume you dont ask your son to behave in ways simply because you like to see him obey (I couldnt imagine God would be this kind of character, who prescribes actions to inflate his ego).Druweid said:Let me go back to that three year old child theory. Except now, it's my six year old son. I've asked him to return home from playing by 7:00pm, and didn't happen to give him a reason. When he tells his friends he has to leave because it is time, does he now have to explain to them why he has to go other than because I require it? Is my son now trying to shift the burden of responsibility off of his own shoulders because he cannot adequately explain to his friends why he has to go?
Now, if you son asked you why he should obey, then I would certainly believe that you are obligated to provide an explanation. If you would reject to idea of providing any further explanation than "because I said so" to explain any of your actions, you would be hardpressed to find a reason to be displeased when your son does not obey for reasons no further explained than "because I dont want to" - that is, unless you can find a good reason to prefer your command over your sons disobediance (and we are taken full circle right back to where we started).
I say this not because I was an incredibly disobediant child, but because I am a serious moral theorist. An unexplained set of commands is no better off than an unexplained set of competing commands - neither are morally prescriptive; and a set commands with explanations like "unknown reasons" is no better off than a set commands with no explanations at all, and literally no better off than rejecting all forms of explanation for morality altogether (this would be kind of nihilism).
However, I am certain that you dont make meaningless commands, I'm certain when you command something to your child, you obviously do so to prevent something bad from happening to him, whatever it may be (or alternatively, you command him to reaffirm that more good things occur).
That being said, there are obvious reasons why a god or anyone would consider stealing and murder to be wrong - because it causes gratuitous suffering (and such people who steal and murder should be punished to prevent further gratuitous suffering).
Now, if homosexuality should be considered immoral, certainly this implies some evil is being prevented, and if so what is it? (Perhaps someone would say homosexuality is an evil in itself, but that would obviously beg the question. Perhaps homosexuality is forbidden to prevent people from suffering the wrath of God, but then that would be take us full circle right back to the beginning, and we'd have to ask why God disapproves of it in the first place.)
I can see how the concern would be reasonable.Druwied said:Perhaps not directly, and likely not with you. Let's just say I've seen it happen often enough that I choose to remain wary, and chose to share that concern with you.
What do you do when someone believes that God finds homosexuality acceptable, perhaps by taking a metaphorical interpretation to the bible or simply believing that God has changed his mind? Is that person correct, or incorrect - and how would you know?Druweid said:The explanation that grounds the reasoning still stands. It may not be entirely suitable for you or me, it is entirely sufficient for the Christians: God commanded it. He is way smarter than us. We don't know why, but we know He must be right. He has to be.
If you have morality that has no explained reasoning behind it, then you cannot have morality by all definitions and implications of the word. You cannot bind anyone to any degree of morality without an explanation. And you cannot consider any action to be any worse or more preferable than any other action if no explanations are provided.These tenets hold regardless of whether a being is infallible or not.
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