Adiya,
Adiya said:
So I told you why, as best I could, by letting God's word speak for itself.
You said it was the only means to glorify God, but I find there are compelling reasons (as I noted in my post) to see that the conclusion only heterosexuality can exalt God is not an objective claim about rightness or wrongness of homosexuality. I could say the drawing the line at gender is arbitrary in the first place, just like drawing the line at other characteristics such as race or nationality. It could be that love itself is more important that the objects of that love, and that God is exalted accordingly. Does this make sense?
However, I want to take a moment to be technical, and focus on your comment "[explaing why homosexuality is wrong by] letting God's word speak for itself". I have no reason to believe that moral prescriptions provided in the bible are authoritative while the moral prescriptions that appear in any other holy texts are not (I mentioned this in
post #3). How can we resolve conflict among holy texts if we dont speak in objective terms? You cant. You
have to define morality according to its actual consequences and appeal to objective rationales, not according to any holy text. Its for reasons like this that non-Christians do not find bible relevant or authoritative for any kind of moral decision.
There is a good reason why, as best as I could, I tried to keep the focus of this thread away of the content of the bible, and aimed at the rationale that the bible (or any moral prescription) is based on.
Adiya said:
It is a question of morals. Anything that goes against what God created us to be is immoral.
God is irrelevant to morality unless there is a rationale behind his moral prescriptions. If there is no rationale, his prescriptions are arbitrary, and we would only be bound to follow them for the sake of being rewarded or punished for obediance or disobediance (and this idea carries no moral component at all).
Adiya said:
God is relevant to morality because God is the creator of morality. God is IN morality. Without God, there is only immorality.
Need the Euthyphro's Dilemma be repeated? Does God disapprove of sing because it is bad or is sin bad because God disapproves of it? On the first interpretation of the dilemma theists can provide objective reasons for not sinning, but so can atheists. On the second interpretation, theists can provide no objective reasons for not sinning so that if atheists cannot, they are no worse off than theists.
Alternatively, all it takes to reveal the objective nature of morality is to simply define what "God is the creator of morality" actually means. If God creates morality in such a way that it is equivalent to his will, then an objective basis for morality is reduced to zilch as no objective reasons can be provided for not sinning. Otherwise, if God creates morality in such a way that provides a means to deduce value judgements, then morality obviously exists apart from him, and as such objective reasons can be provided for not sinning.
Alternatively (again), you could recognize that morality has to do with the capacity to make value judgements and reason, and this can be done without the aide of God. Therefore, without God, morality is reduced down to the defining right and wrong according to a value basis - that is literally saying "morality reduces down to morality", which is a tautology; this means "morality with God" is superficially identical to "morality without God", clearly indicating a needless repitition of entities, lending to God being superfluous to the definition of morality.
I've written a lot about secular morality in the past, I could probably go on for several more pages, but I feel it would be deviated too far from the opening post.