bsenka said:
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At first I was confused as to why you are being so confrontational, then I realized my faux pas. Trent WAS a Catholic Council, and did include the Apocrypha! (As do the Anglicans and many Orthodox Churches.)
Nevertheless, to argue the point of whether the Apocrypha really belongs in the Bible only solidifies my initial problem: Even here we can't agree on what constitutes "THE" Bible!!!
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Here's the truth, the Bible is a book that belongs to the Catholic Church. Why? They created its makeup, and declared that makeup to be inspired of God, and infallible. If you believe in the concept of "The Bible" you are believing in a Catholic concept. It is only "The Bible" because they said it is. The Bible does not assert that fact, the Church did.
As to the "Apocrypha", it does belong. Why? Well, it has always been there, Jesus used it, Paul used it, and quotes it in the New Testament, it is the Old Testament of the Christian people, and the Jewish People up to the 4th century. Martin Luther, in a stunning display of arrogance, changed the Protestant Bible to use rather that modern day Jewish Jamnian version, created hundreds of years after Jesus' death. These are facts that are not in dispute.
So, how do we know that it is "the Bible", only because the Church tells us it is. To believe on the Scriptures is to believe on Christ's Church (Mt 16:16-18). And what you believe in at that point is what Paul directed us to do: "...hold to the traditions you were taught by us, rather oral or by letter."
If the Bible were the only authority on Earth, it would have to assert that fact. It doesn't. Rather, as stated here before, the Bible names the earthly authority, in 1 Tim 3:15, "The Church is the pillar and foundation of truth." It exercised that power when it gave us the Bible. The Church gaves us the Bible, not the other way around.