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Why didn't God kill Pharaoh instead of killing all the firstborns?

tonychanyt

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Killing the pharaoh would cause political chaos in Egypt. God wanted him alive to use him.

After the firstborns were dead, the Israelites left Goshen. Pharaoh changed his mind and pursued them into the Red Sea. Ex 15:

21 Miriam sang to them: “Sing to the LORD, for he has triumphed gloriously; the horse and his rider he has thrown into the sea.”
God used Pharaoh to glorify himself.

Further in Numbers 3:

11 The Lord also said to Moses, 12 “I have taken the Levites from among the Israelites in place of the first male offspring of every Israelite woman. The Levites are mine, 13 for all the firstborn are mine. When I struck down all the firstborn in Egypt, I set apart for myself every firstborn in Israel, whether human or animal. They are to be mine. I am the LORD.”
Killing the Egyptian firstborns laid the basis for God to claim the Levites instead of the Israelite firstborns to be priests to serve him. The Levites substituted for the firstborns in service to God. In the NT, Christ superseded the high priest (He 9:11). Jesus, the firstborn (Col 1:15), substituted for the priesthood.

God kept Pharaoh alive to use him to glorify God. Killing the Egyptian firstborn foreshadowed Jesus' redemption.
 

okay

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Killing the pharaoh would cause political chaos in Egypt. God wanted him alive to use him.

After the firstborns were dead, the Israelites left Goshen. Pharaoh changed his mind and pursued them into the Red Sea. Ex 15:

God used Pharaoh to glorify himself.

Further in Numbers 3:

Killing the Egyptian firstborns laid the basis for God to claim the Levites instead of the Israelite firstborns to be priests to serve him. The Levites substituted for the firstborns in service to God. In the NT, Christ superseded the high priest (He 9:11). Jesus, the firstborn (Col 1:15), substituted for the priesthood.

God kept Pharaoh alive to use him to glorify God. Killing the Egyptian firstborn foreshadowed Jesus' redemption.
Is this a correct rephrasing of your argument?

God killed thousands (10s of thousands? 100s of thousands?) of children so a) God could use Pharaoh to glorify himself, and b) to foreshadow Jesus' redemption.

If that is correct, do you see a justice issue with that? Does it mean there is nothing fundamentally wrong with killing children in order to make a point?
 
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tonychanyt

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If that is correct, do you see a justice issue with that?

That depends on how one defines justice.

Does it mean there is nothing fundamentally wrong with killing children in order to make a point?
No, it does not mean that.
 
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No, it does not mean that.
Please elaborate. To me it seems like there are three options:

1. God killed the firstborn, and it was not wrong

2. God killed the firstborn, and it was wrong

3 God did not kill the firstborn. That is, the story isn’t meant to be read literally.

If the answer is #1, then doesn’t it imply there is nothing inherently wrong with killing children?
 
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Apple Sky

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The exact identity of the Pharaoh in Exodus has never been determined. Ahmose I, Ramses II, Thutmose II are frequently mentioned as possible identities.

I just read it was Ramses II & he died by drowning in the Sea, not sure how true this is ????
 
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tonychanyt

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For the 2nd time, the answer is 'no'.
Thanks for the reply. I would like to apologize for my posts. They were more about me and not in the spirit that this forum should be about.

I do value the many thoughtful posts you make on this forum.
 
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