Why did the Jews accuse Jesus of making himself equal to God when He said "My Father"?

[tonychanyt]

John 5:

17 Jesus answered them [the Jews], “My Father is working until now, and I am working.”
18 This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.

What were those Jews thinking? How could calling God "my Father" mean that Jesus implied equality with God?

The Jews did not object to the wording "My Father". It had precedents in the Hebrew Scriptures, 2 Samuel 7:

13 He is the one who will build a house for my Name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever. 14 I will be his father, and he will be my son.

Psalm 89:

26 He will call out to me, 'You are my Father, my God, the Rock my Savior.'

The Jews objected to the way Jesus applied the phrase "my Father" in a unique sense that God was His Father as a spiritual reality, not a metaphor, that He was the Son of God. The following was how Jesus defined the Son in the immediate context, John 5:21-23:

1. Just as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, even so the Son gives life to whom he is pleased to give it.
2. Moreover, the Father judges no one but has entrusted all judgment to the Son
3. that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father.
4. Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father, who sent him.

So, the Jews accused Jesus of making himself equal to God when He said "My Father" in John 5:17. And rightly so.

In the wider context, five chapters later, Jesus claimed in John 10:

30 "I and the Father are one.”
31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him.

 

[Josheb]

John 5:


What were those Jews thinking? How could calling God "my Father" mean that Jesus implied equality with God?

The Jews did not object to the wording "My Father". It had precedents in the Hebrew Scriptures, 2 Samuel 7:


Psalm 89:


The Jews objected to the way Jesus applied the phrase "my Father" in a unique sense that God was His Father as a spiritual reality, not a metaphor, that He was the Son of God. The following was how Jesus defined the Son in the immediate context, John 5:21-23:

1. Just as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, even so the Son gives life to whom he is pleased to give it.
2. Moreover, the Father judges no one but has entrusted all judgment to the Son
3. that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father.
4. Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father, who sent him.

So, the Jews accused Jesus of making himself equal to God when He said "My Father" in John 5:17. And rightly so.

In the wider context, five chapters later, Jesus claimed in John 10:

Would it be fair to say this op is answering the title's question with the statement I highlighted in bold-face type?

Otherwise, the question asked hasn't been answered. Yes, the Jews objected..... buy why did they accuse Jesus of making himself equal to God?


Elijah and Elisha both brought people back from the dead. Doing so did not make either equal with God. The Jews of John 5 knew that. All of the Judges and all the prophets spoke as judges and their doing so did not make them equal with God. The Jews of John 5 knew that, too. David honored his Lord above himself, an honored normally reserved only for God. The John 5 Jews knew that, too. Whoever did not honor any of God's leaders dishonored God, but that did not make any of those leaders God.

Keep in mind they did not merely accuse him, they attempted to kill him. Jesus was, after all correct. What was the problem for a man who is actually equal to God making comparisons between himself and God that assert his actual equality? Why is the question asked.


Why did the Jews accuse Jesus of making himself equal to God when he said, "My Father..."?

 

[tonychanyt]

why did they accuse Jesus of making himself equal to God?

That is a different question from

Why did the Jews accuse Jesus of making himself equal to God when He said "My Father"?

 

[Josheb]

That is a different question from

Why did the Jews accuse Jesus of making himself equal to God when He said "My Father"?

Read it again. The paired down version is not a different question and the "why" still hasn't been answered. I have no problem the specific case has to do with Jesus saying, "my Father," but it's not Jesus' use of "my Father" that cause the Jews reaction. That explanation would be an external explanation, one that avoids the internal problem, the internal cause. MANY external conditions could exist to prompt or provoke the Jews' response but none of them would be the causal "why" explanation.

What else does the whole of God's word say that explains the "why" and answers the question asked?




Hint: Luke 6:45
.

 

[tonychanyt]

Read it again

Are you familiar with First-Order Logic? See "Whoever is not with me is against me" vs "Whoever is not against you is for you"

 

[Josheb]

Are you familiar with First-Order Logic? See "Whoever is not with me is against me" vs "Whoever is not against you is for you"

Yes.

Will you now please answer the questions asked? The op purports to answer the question, "Why did the Jews accuse Jesus of making himself equal to God when he said, '"My Father....'?" but the op does not actually answer the question "why?" It explains circumstance, all of them external to those accusing Jesus. Technically, he's not being "accused" because Jesus is equal to the Father, although he laid aside all claims of equality when he took on the role of bondservant (Php. 2). The John 5 text doesn't actually use the term "accuse" but I can accommodate the term for the sake of this discussion. The only actual accusations mention in the chapter are those of Jesus toward Jews (not the other way around). What they thought was an accusation was, in reality, the truth. Why did they think Jesus was guilty of blasphemy?

The text states, "For this reason therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because he not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God." That does not explain why they thought he make himself equal with God, or why he should be killed. So I will reiterate what I said previously: all the external observations and explanations scripture provides will prove insufficient because the answer to the question, "Why...?" is mostly internal.

It is out of the abundance of the heart the mouth speaks.

When those Jews spoke, they spoke out of what was in their heart. That is what answers the "Why...?"

Now, are you with me or not?

 

[Josheb]

bump