Why did the horrible acts of the OT stop?

Hikarifuru

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I personally believe the New Testaments end to the stoning and killing that was decreed by the Christian god in the Old Testament is the result of the moral advancement of humans. As humans developed so did their religion and it no longer allowed the acts that it once did.

Im aware that jesus stopped them.

Do you think there was some Old Testament sign or verse that the killing would simply end with the arrival of jesus?
 

Sketcher

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Jesus didn't abrogate the death penalty, at least not directly (those who claim he did in John 8 misunderstand John 8). But he did give the church a new mission with the Great Commission which is simply incompatible with killing unbelievers. The church is to convert people, and you cannot convert the dead, nor can coercion foster true conversion. We see this modeled in the book of Acts, when sorcerers and witches were verbally rebuked, exorcised, preached to, and even converted rather than being killed on the spot. This however, does leave room for the state to execute people who have committed crimes worthy of death.

As far as methods of execution, that has simply evolved as ways to kill have evolved. Why throw stones when you can fire a bullet.
 
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hedrick

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I think the prophetic vision of Israel as light to the Gentiles indicates a different approach. In Jesus time there were other voices for acceptance of Gentiles, though there were continuing intolerant voices as we'll. E.g. Ezra/Nehemiah and Maccabees. In much of the OT the wars are typical tribal and city wars, not religious ones. The slaughter of non Jews is mostly from a prehistory whose accuracy is dubious.
 
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gord44

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One can also look that Jesus had the most valid idea of what his/the Father was really like. Almost like a transmission. The signal was a bit weak at first so we get some different ideas about God through the OT but then when Jesus comes it loud and clear in Dolby Surround Sound (TM) and High Definition.
 
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Sketcher

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Are you saying that jesus only saved the woman in adultery so that she could convert? What if he knew shed never convert?

Jesus was multitasking with that incident. He was protecting himself, showing up his opponents, and showing mercy to give her another chance. We don't know either way if she converted or not, but we do know he did publicly preach a rebuke to Pharisees whom he knew would not convert - though that was likely for the sole purpose of providing instruction to others who heard him, and to the church in general.
 
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Hikarifuru

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Jesus was multitasking with that incident. He was protecting himself, showing up his opponents, and showing mercy to give her another chance. We don't know either way if she converted or not, but we do know he did publicly preach a rebuke to Pharisees whom he knew would not convert - though that was likely for the sole purpose of providing instruction to others who heard him, and to the church in general.

Ok thanks for sharing.
 
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Harry3142

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DeanW-

You're trying to compare apples and oranges. The laws of Torah were societal laws, not a 'roadmap to heaven'. Their purpose was to mold a people (the Hebrews) into a strong, cohesive society where everyone knew exactly what they were to do, and what they were forbidden to do. In that era (circa 1500 BC) everyone's being 'on the same page' in a society was the 'yardstick' which measured whether that society would continue to exist, or be eradicated by one of its neighbors.

The New Testament, on the other hand, does not focus on a single society, but instead focuses on calling people from every nation to accept the gift of salvation:

What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; but Israel, who pursued a law of righteousness, has not attained it. Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the "stumbling stone." As it is written:

"See, I lay in Zion a stone that causes men to stumble and a rock that makes them fall, and the one who trusts in him will never be put to shame." (Romans 9:30-33,NIV)

Those of us who who accept this righteousness find that we want to conduct ourselves as Scripture instructs. Those actions which it states as being offlimits to us, we accept as offlimits to us. Those actions which it states that we are to practice, we accept as actions worthy of being practiced. However, Scripture itself tells us that those who are nonbelievers are not for us to judge, irregardless of their actions. Instead, only those who would have us accept them as fellow Christians are to be measured against the actions which Scripture teaches that we are to practice, and those we are to shun:

I have written you in my letter not to associate with sexually immoral people - not at all meaning the people of this world who are immoral, or the greedy and swindlers, or idolaters. In that case you would have to leave this world. But now I am writing you that you must not associate with anyone who calls himself a brother but is sexually immoral or greedy, an idolater or a slanderer, a drunkard or a swindler. With such a man do not even eat.

What business is it of mine to judge those outside the church? Are you not to judge those inside? God will judge those outside. (I Corinthians 5:9-13a,NIV)
 
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orangeness365

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I personally think the difference between the Old Testament and the New Testament is that in the Old Testament, God was trying to make sure the whole community went to Heaven, whereas in the New Testament, the focus changes from the community to the individual.
Jesus might have saved the woman so that she would repent and be forgiven, but if the Bible doesn't say why, then we can only guess as to why. I think it was so that she would turn from her sins.

Romans 2:4
4Or do you presume on the riches of his kindness and forbearance and patience, not knowing that God’s kindness is meant to lead you to repentance?
 
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