Fish and Bread
Dona nobis pacem
- Jan 31, 2005
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My problem is not that there are some possible indirect allusions to New Testament verses in the cited verses from the Deuterocanonical books, but that a handful of these verses, when taken in their contexts, actually contradict either New or Old Testament verses, as I cited above. An example would be the glorious description of Judith which, if taken literally, must put Mary into another category which is impossible to do, given the fact that the phraseology is so hyperbolic in both cases.
Well, what if we said that Judith was "blessed of the most high God above all the women of the earth" alive at the time? Mary lived later, so what is said about Judith doesn't necessarily contradict what is said about Mary, if the passages are interpreted in a certain way. I guess I should probably look up Judith and review it in more detail, but that would be the initial possibility that would jump to mind.
But what divine right did the Reformers have to make rulings on this sort of thing? Especially rulings that contradict the historic Christian belief? What about cases where the Reformers contradicted each other, like the real presence in the Eucharist and so on and so forth? I think it is really hard to accept the judgment of the Reformers as definitive, because it is hard to make a case for them having the authority to make changes or even to determine what their ruling would have been on a lot of issues where they disagreed (Granted, they generally all agreed on excluding the deuterocanon, apart from the Anglicans, who were more mixed).The Reformers were neither malicious nor capricious in their decisions.
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