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Why did God allowed David and Bathsheba to be together,after all?

Oct 14, 2014
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This sounds like a silly question, but it came to my mind.

Why did God allowed David to have the women he stole to another man, and even produce a son to her who would be his successor?

Wouldn't making her separate from David make more sense? After all he committed a sin with her. :confused:
 

mercy1061

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This sounds like a silly question, but it came to my mind.

Why did God allowed David to have the women he stole to another man, and even produce a son to her who would be his successor?

Wouldn't making her separate from David make more sense? After all he committed a sin with her. :confused:

Uriah was a Hittite, it was really political.
 
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elliott95

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It occurs to me that Jesus never instructed the woman at the well, who also was involved in an irregular relationship, to leave the man that she was living with either.

God does not allow the perfect to be an enemy to the good. He never reaches out to us at the point of where we should be, but always reaches out to us to where we are, right now.
The sin was committed. The past cannot be changed, only repented from. David was with Bathsheba when all was said and done, and that is the kind of world that we sinners created, and that is the first step of the rest of our lives, from whence God proceeds from, with us, if we want him to.
 
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sdowney717

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Everything that happens like that is to instruct others as to what can happen to you if you go against God's commandments.

That incident shows God's judgement and also God's love and mercy triumphing over God's righteous judgement for those whom God has chosen to show mercy towards.

We are all somewhat frail imperfect people. If it was not for Him our end would be like Sodom and Gomorhea, a total destruction regardless of any Bathsheba's in out pasts.

1 Corinthians 10 New King James Version (NKJV)

Old Testament Examples
10 Moreover, brethren, I do not want you to be unaware that all our fathers were under the cloud, all passed through the sea, 2 all were baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea, 3 all ate the same spiritual food, 4 and all drank the same spiritual drink. For they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them, and that Rock was Christ. 5 But with most of them God was not well pleased, for their bodies were scattered in the wilderness.

6 Now these things became our examples, to the intent that we should not lust after evil things as they also lusted. 7 And do not become idolaters as were some of them. As it is written, “The people sat down to eat and drink, and rose up to play.”[a] 8 Nor let us commit sexual immorality, as some of them did, and in one day twenty-three thousand fell; 9 nor let us tempt Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed by serpents; 10 nor complain, as some of them also complained, and were destroyed by the destroyer.

11 Now all these things happened to them as examples, and they were written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the ages have come.

12 Therefore let him who thinks he stands take heed lest he fall. 13 No temptation has overtaken you except such as is common to man; but God is faithful, who will not allow you to be tempted beyond what you are able, but with the temptation will also make the way of escape, that you may be able to bear it.
 
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Pastor Don

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God will not change the actions of man. Man will have to decide on the course he will follow and then abide by the blessings or consequences that follow. What David created from his brokenness, God turned to good. We can see living proof in Jesus Christ that God's will always comes to pass regardless of our mistakes and mis-steps.
 
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bling

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This sounds like a silly question, but it came to my mind.

Why did God allowed David to have the women he stole to another man, and even produce a son to her who would be his successor?

Wouldn't making her separate from David make more sense? After all he committed a sin with her. :confused:
This may not be as easy as we might think:

David will pay to have all his other “wives and concubines” cared for and will become a one woman man.

But remember: All of David’s other wives and concubines were not adulterous in their actions.

Bathsheba was an adulterous deserving of stoning and it would be extremely hard to find anyone that would want her, care about her or keep her safe. It would take someone that had been shown extreme mercy to be able to give extreme mercy and Bathsheba was in need of the greatest of mercy. Living with Bathsheba would have been a daily reminder to David of what he had done. This is not something rulers around David would consider, they would not want anyone reminded of their mistakes or be reminded themselves.
 
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ToBeBlessed

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God did take away David and Bethsheeba's child. Also, I do not think she was an adulterer until David insisted she be with him. Then she got pregnant and he brought her husband back from war to 'be' with her. Then when her husband did not consumate so her pregnancy could be hidden, husband was killed and she was with David.

I believe that was David's doing.
 
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elliott95

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On a related note, why did God command Hosea to marry a harlot?

It was a symbolic act. Even if he did literally marry that harlot, the metaphor was of God marrying the harlot Israel, and the names of Hosea's children carried with them the prophecy of what was going to happen to the children of Israel in the very near future.

Either way, there is nothing immoral about marrying a harlot.
 
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GratiaCorpusChristi

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This sounds like a silly question, but it came to my mind.

Why did God allowed David to have the women he stole to another man, and even produce a son to her who would be his successor?

Wouldn't making her separate from David make more sense? After all he committed a sin with her. :confused:

Why does God let any of us sin?
 
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Standing Up

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God did take away David and Bethsheeba's child. Also, I do not think she was an adulterer until David insisted she be with him. Then she got pregnant and he brought her husband back from war to 'be' with her. Then when her husband did not consumate so her pregnancy could be hidden, husband was killed and she was with David.

I believe that was David's doing.

Sorta like Abraham and Hagar and Sarah. In each case, the first was a "man-made" offspring. The second (Isaac, Solomon) of promise.
 
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Oct 14, 2014
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It occurs to me that Jesus never instructed the woman at the well, who also was involved in an irregular relationship, to leave the man that she was living with either.

God does not allow the perfect to be an enemy to the good. He never reaches out to us at the point of where we should be, but always reaches out to us to where we are, right now.
The sin was committed. The past cannot be changed, only repented from. David was with Bathsheba when all was said and done, and that is the kind of world that we sinners created, and that is the first step of the rest of our lives, from whence God proceeds from, with us, if we want him to.

Good answer, I didn't think this! :thumbsup:

This may not be as easy as we might think:

David will pay to have all his other “wives and concubines” cared for and will become a one woman man.

But remember: All of David’s other wives and concubines were not adulterous in their actions.

Bathsheba was an adulterous deserving of stoning and it would be extremely hard to find anyone that would want her, care about her or keep her safe. It would take someone that had been shown extreme mercy to be able to give extreme mercy and Bathsheba was in need of the greatest of mercy. Living with Bathsheba would have been a daily reminder to David of what he had done. This is not something rulers around David would consider, they would not want anyone reminded of their mistakes or be reminded themselves.

Yes. And the fact "the sword never departed" from his house was enough to him to remember.
 
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