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Why are the Orthodox being taught this? [Moved from OBOB]

St_Barnabus

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In conclusion to this long saga - LOL - we can settle with observing that Gregory's letter was addressed to an individual bishop as a matter of discipline. It was NOT a Bull, or Encyclical teaching or addressing the entire Church on either faith or morals. Therefore, it should NOT be understood in the light of an infallible declaration. Keep this in mind, that popes write many letters (epistles) such as this, but they are not official documents requiring belief by the faithful.
 
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Joshua G.

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I am still trying to wrap my head around what you've quoted.

Can you list out some major differences between what John the Faster was trying to claim and what the RCC claims for the office of the Pope. I think that's what it comes down to. The answer to my question may lie in what you've quoted above, but as I said, I am having a difficult time deciphering it.

Thank you so much for your patience.

Josh
 
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Joshua G.

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There's irony in warning an Orthodox against treating a Pope's (or anyone's) words as infallible
 
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St_Barnabus

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Joshua G said:
Can you list out some major differences between what John the Faster was trying to claim and what the RCC claims for the office of the Pope.

From the same article, Josh:

[FONT=Times New Roman, Times]
I hope you are ok with this extra info. It paints a pretty good picture, I believe, of what you are asking.
[/FONT]
 
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Montalban

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That's never been my understanding.

The Pope can act without consulting any other bishop, and can directly intervene in any part of the church he so sees fit. He is the ruler of the whole church, but of course rules through others because the logisitics of running it all himself would be impracticle.

My understanding is also that to be 'Catholic' you must be in communion with the Pope. He doesn't need to be in communion with you to be Catholic.
 
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Montalban

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he is right, most EO do not really understand what the Catholic Church teaches about the Papacy

Do you have a survey to show this? I'd be interested in knowing more about how you acquire this knowledge of EO minds.
 
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Montalban

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What is your understanding of "Universal Bishop" and also what "Universal Bishop" is used as when its used 'here' in an 'ant-Catholic' fashion?

Just so I can compare the two.

regards,
M.
 
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Joshua G.

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What is your understanding of "Universal Bishop" and also what "Universal Bishop" is used as when its used 'here' in an 'ant-Catholic' fashion?

Just so I can compare the two.

regards,
M.

I am sorry for being so slow on the uptake, but I still don't see the answer to this question. That's fine if at this time no one has a precise answer. Lack of an answer certainly doesn't prove anything either way but if anyone here is able to offer it, that would be great.

If you feel it has been answered, can you link that exact post. It is entirely possible that I either did not read it slowly enough or simply skipped it.

Thank you.

Josh
 
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St_Barnabus

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Oh my, I can't believe this ... let's try one more time.

1. Pope Gregory was the Church's Universal Bishop, and he knew it.

2. He was upset that a subordinate wanted to adopt the title for himself.

3. He wrote a letter to him deploring his action, and finally excommunicated him. This letter has been taken out of context by other religions to imply that Gregory did not believe he was the Universal Bishop of the Church.

4. The College of Bishops have equal authority under the Supreme Pontiff, but "Jack" wanted this title for himself above the others.

5. Anti-Catholics twisted this letter to falsely prove that there is no such title or office as a Universal Bishop.

6. Canon Law calls the Roman Pontiff, the Universal Bishop in today's church.

If this isn't clear, then I don't think anyone is looking for an answer at this time, but rather a debate.
 
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MoNiCa4316

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Philothei

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I thought it was said that the idea of the "universal" bishop was the not same as what the Pope stands for...Now it seems it is said that "as subortinate" assumed the "idea of Universal Bishop" I am confused here...

So by your definition if the "universal bishop" only applies to the Bishop of Rome .... then how could St. Gregory say that the universal idea of Bishop the Patriarch was assuming was acting as the anti-Christ etc...
He must then have been excluding himself somehow..or it would have been contradictory... Maybe I am totally wrong here but for sure confused

Thanks for the reply and your patience
 
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Montalban

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Where in the letter do you believe he condemns others for trying to use the phrase, and not anyone per se using it?

My understanding is that the very term "universal bishop" or rather "bishop of bishops" was first used derisively by Tertullian. Are you aware of anything like this?
 
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Montalban

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Originally the objection was that the quote is incorrect. Now it seems that it is correct but not used in the right context. Is that now the case?
 
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Aeyamar

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I know this was already quoted, but it seems to be the best explanation of what exactly Gregory meant exactly when he wrote against the idea of a universal bishop.


Personally I find it hard to believe he was speaking against Papal authority, especially since Gregory did more to expand it than almost any other pope. To boil down what the above says, his main objections were the following:

That the title was being used by a bishop who could not claim authority over the church since the primacy of the See of Rome above that of Constantinople had already been established by ecumenical council (and thus the Bishop of Constantinople could not be a universal bishop over and above Rome).

That the title, or at least the way he thought the title was being used, implied that the universal bishop was the only real bishop, and thus the only one that had the authority to, for example, run a diocese.

The last objection seems to be where people are getting stuck. The question is whether or not the papacy has become the effective equivalent of the only bishop given the many powers his office holds. I don't believe so (of course I'm Catholic, so big surprise there) mostly because of how sparsely that power is used. For example, the pope almost never interfere's with a bishop running his diocese, unless something very significant begins to go wrong and for the most part bishops have quite a lot of authority in how they run their diocese and in groups have quite a bit of influence on how the church is run as a whole.

It is also important to note that this was also probably an objection to John just claiming the title with no right to it. Pope Gregory was elected to his position of power and primacy with the consent of all the Roman Cardinals, whereas I believe the title John was trying to claim was simply assumed by him. (Although this title had been used sporadically before to refer to the Patriarch of Constantinople, he was the first to use it as an official title)
 
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Montalban

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Aeyamar, where is this quote from?

Are you aware that when 'catholic' was first used (by Ignatius) he said that everywhere a church is, headed by a bishop, there is the Catholic Church? This means that one can have, I believe, many Catholic Churches, whilst all are indeed still 'one' - the mystery of God is reflected here - as there are three persons, each fully God, all One
 
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Montalban

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I apologise for not citing Ignatius in my previous post...
The Epistle of Ignatius to the Smyrnaeans
"Chapter VIII.-Let Nothing Be Done Without the Bishop.



See that ye all follow the bishop, even as Jesus Christ does the Father, and the presbytery as ye would the apostles; and reverence the deacons, as being the institution of God. Let no man do anything connected with the Church without the bishop. Let that be deemed a proper Eucharist, which is [administered] either by the bishop, or by one to whom he has entrusted it. Wherever the bishop shall appear, there let the multitude [of the people] also be; even as, wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church. It is not lawful without the bishop either to baptize or to celebrate a love-feast; but whatsoever he shall approve of, that is also pleasing to God, so that everything that is done may be secure and valid"

(emphasis added)

St. Ignatius “The Epistle to the Smyrnaeans" Chapter VIII.-Let Nothing Be Done Without the Bishop
 
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Montalban

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Here's what one pope said of his own authority...

III. That he alone can depose or reinstate bishops.
IV. That, in a council his legate, even if a lower grade, is above all bishops, and can pass sentence of deposition against them.
V. That the pope may depose the absent.
...
VII. That for him alone is it lawful, according to the needs of the time, to make new laws, to assemble together new congregations, to make an abbey of a canonry; and, on the other hand, to divide a rich bishopric and unite the poor ones.
...
XIII. That he may be permitted to transfer bishops if need be.
XIV. That he has power to ordain a clerk of any church he may wish.
XV. That he who is ordained by him may preside over another church, but may not hold a subordinate position; and that such a one may not receive a higher grade from any bishop.
XVI. That no synod shall be called a general one without his order.
XVII. That no chapter and no book shall be considered canonical without his authority.
XVIII. That a sentence passed by him may be retracted by no one; and that he himself, alone of all, may retract it.
XIX. That he himself may be judged by no one.
XX. That no one shall dare to condemn one who appeals to the apostolic chair.
XI. That to the latter should be referred the more important cases of every church.
...
XXIV. That, by his command and consent, it may be lawful for subordinates to bring accusations.
XV. That he may depose and reinstate bishops without assembling a synod.
XVI. That he who is not at peace with the Roman church shall not be considered catholic.
XVII. That he may absolve subjects from their fealty to wicked men.

Pope Gregory VII The Dictatus papae (1075) quoted in Miller, M. C., (2005), "Power and the Holy in the Age of the Investiture Conflict: A Brief History with Documents", (Bedford; New York), pp81-83.
 
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St_Barnabus

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Philothei said:
I thought it was said that the idea of the "universal" bishop was the not same as what the Pope stands for...Now it seems it is said that "as subortinate" assumed the "idea of Universal Bishop" I am confused here...

Did you note my post from Canon Law that calls the Roman Pontiff the Bishop of the Roman Church? Whatever one wants to believe about our history and St. Gregory, it cannot be assumed that the church has never believed in the primacy of the Pope as Head of the College of Bishops. I don't understand at this point why it is so difficult to follow the logic of this argument; i.e., that John the Faster wished to usurp the title for himself in detriment to the entire College of Bishops.


From the link I posted earlier:


And here is the truthful context in light of Catholic teaching:


My poor head is aching from trying to be perfectly clear. There are many apologists who have also given arguments on the internet, and I suggest that further research will have to be done by those who aren't able to grasp my limited presentation.

The bottom line is, Catholics have no problem with believing as we do, so we have no homework assignment. The burden falls to EO's if they wish to do honest research to truly understand, rather than supplant; it is readily available.

Thank you for your inquiry. God bless.
 
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LivingWordUnity

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Actually, in that part of the quote it says "wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church" but when talking about the a bishop it says, "wherever the bishop appears, let the people be there"

"You must follow the bishop as Jesus Christ follows the Father, and the presbytery as you would the Apostles. Reverence the deacons as you would the command of God. Let no one do anything of concern to the Church without the bishop. Let that be considered a valid Eucharist which is celebrated by the bishop, or by one whom he appoints. Wherever the bishop appears, let the people be there, just as wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church."
St. Ignatius of Antioch, Letter to the Smyrnaeans, 8:1-2, AD 107

And the only Church that has historically called herself "The Catholic Church" and is still universally known by that name today is the one with a Pope in Rome.

And by the way, speaking of Saint Ignatius, here is another quote from him:

“Ignatius…to the church also which holds the presidency in the place of the country of the Romans, worthy of God, worthy of honor, worthy of blessing, worthy of praise, worthy of success, worthy of sanctification, and, because you hold the presidency in love, named after Christ and named after the Father.”
St. Ignatius of Antioch, Letter to the Romans, 1:1, A.D. 110
 
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St_Barnabus

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Montalban said:
My understanding is that the very term "universal bishop" or rather "bishop of bishops" was first used derisively by Tertullian. Are you aware of anything like this?

No, and I have no desire to do homework to enter debate with you, since the outcome will not change a thing concerning either of our beliefs. It is an unproductive debate that requires far too much time dealing with sophism.

God bless.
 
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