The bottom line is that the New Testament says absolutely NOTHING about the use - or non-use - of instruments in worship. Verses that are used to force the anti-instrumental position (such as Ephesians 5:19) are mis-interpreted and force-fitted to fit a predisposed mindset (actually, Ephesians 5:19 speaks of "psalms" which, by definition, are songs accompanied by stringed instruments...).
Considering that we "claim" to be people who live and walk by faith in the grace of God, expressed through the sacrifice of Jesus, I find it mind-boggling that people claim God is going to send people to Hell for doing something He never said we shouldn't do (use instrumental accompaniment in worship).
Okay, this is not the first time we've discussed this issue before.
Previously, you have declared that Eph. 5:19 has no application to the assembly. I begged to differ with you then, as I still do. Ephesians 5 is not dealing with the assembly per se, but it does apply. To illustrate, consider Eph. 5:18 - "Do not be drunk with wine." Per your reasoning (i.e., this has no application to the assembly), it would be unacceptable to be drunk with wine outside the assembly, but since the passage cannot be applied to the assembly, drunkenness in the assembly would be acceptable. Like it or not, this example shows your reasoning leaves much to be desired.
Granted ... the N.T. says nothing about the use or non-use of instruments in worship. However, unless I’m badly mistaken, God’s word DOES tell us that singing pleases Him. The types of songs are specified, as is how the songs are to be sung. Ephesians 5:19, Colossians 3:16, and James 5:13 are examples of such teaching. I deny these verses are being “used to force the anti-instrumental position.” These verses plainly tell us what God commands and what pleases Him. If any “forcing” is being done, it is being done by those who try to force something into those passages that simply isn’t there.
As for the word “psalms” (the Koine Greek word psalmos) in Ephesians 5:19, we have also previously discussed this point.
“Psalmos” in the New Testament:
* Luke 20:42 - Now David himself said in the Book of
Psalms: 'The Lord said to my Lord, "Sit at My right hand.
* Luke 24:44 - Then He said to them, “These are the words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that all things must be fulfilled which were written in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the
Psalms concerning Me.”
* Acts 1:20 – “For it is written in the book of
Psalms: ‘Let his dwelling place be desolate, And let no one live in it’; and, ‘Let another take his office.’
* Acts 13:33 - God has fulfilled this for us their children, in that He has raised up Jesus. As it is also written in the second
Psalm: ‘You are My Son, Today I have begotten You.’
* 1 Corinthians 14:26 - How is it then, brethren? Whenever you come together, each of you has a
psalm, has a teaching, has a tongue, has a revelation, has an interpretation. Let all things be done for edification.
* Ephesians 5:19 - speaking to one another in
psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord,
* Colossians 3:16 - Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom, teaching and admonishing one another in
psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.
What I have asked you to do previously (several times), is to take the definition for “psalms” you offer, insert it into the passages where the word “psalms” appears, and see if the proposed definition makes sense. For some strange reason, you have balked every single time and have been unwilling to do what you ask others to do. I believe it is clear and evident that “psalms” as used in the New Testament simply refers to the book of Psalms, or an excerpt from that book.
Those who “claim” to walk by faith should be willing to examine themselves per 2 Corinthians 13:5. Putting things in perspective, judgment belongs to the Lord. Simply stated, none of us determine who goes to hell, or who goes to heaven. Rather, our role as Christians is to “preach the word” (2 Tim. 4:2) and to “speak as the oracles of God (1 Peter 4:11a). Therefore, we should preach/speak what passages such as Eph. 5:19, Col. 3:16, and James 5:13 say.
Previously, I have asked you about the silence of the Scriptures as it relates to Hebrews 7:13-14. Concisely stated in that context, Jesus is being presented as a priest after the order of Melchizedek versus the Levitical system. Under the law of Moses, God specified that the priests would be from the tribe of Levi. Jesus descended from the tribe of Judah. God was silent about the tribe of Judah concerning the priesthood (the point of Heb. 7:14). The point the Hebrew writer is making is that this silence did NOT authorize priests from Judah. Rather, it prohibited them – because God specifically said from whom the priests would descend. Therefore, of necessity, Jesus had to be a priest after a different order than the Levites. Note the conclusion of the point in Hebrews 7:21 and 8:4. With this principle in mind, let’s consider the basics of Ephesians 5:19: God tells Christians what action pleases Him – singing; what is to be sung – psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs; and how we are to sing – from the heart. Applying the principle of Hebrews 7:13-14, we have to decide if silence authorizes or doesn’t authorize things not specified. It is clear in Hebrews 7 that silence prohibits where God has spoken. Why is it that “we” struggle so to apply this principle to Ephesians 5:19?
