Remus said:
Where I see your argument failing is that you are making the presumption that everyone at that time read accounts about their past in the same way. You compare how mythical accounts were read with how Scripture was read and you try to make the case that Scripture (be it oral or written) was treated in the same fashion. The fact that the Jews were entrusted with the oracles of God would automatically set them apart from everything else.
BTW, I havent read the entire thread that you are referring to, so I may have missed something that has addressed this issue.
The point is that we have NO evidence of ANY culture in that time and place reading their accounts about their past in a literal way. All we have is evidence of the contrary, so again we are left with evidence only going one way.
Yes, the Israelites viewed their texts as sacred accounts, but so did the other cultures I am speaking of. The Egyptian stories were being told by their priests and scribes, as were the Sumerian texts. But, even if this were a distinction, it would still provide no evidence that they would have read the texts literally. There is no evidence that even sacred would require literal. We have seen that these ancient cultures could view an account as valid, true and even essential WITHOUT needing to view it as strictly literal.
Further, we have the other evidences. First, these accounts have much of the literary style and are in the same genre as much of the other ANE literature. In fact, very often these stories sound very similar not just in style, but in content. In ancient Sumerian, long before the writing down of the Torah, we have accounts of a primeval garden, a snake and a first couple. Abraham and his family grew up in this culture and would have been raised on those stories.
Second, we have the internal evidence itself. Just like in the other ANE cultures, the two creation accounts don't correspond exactly, and I think it highly unlikely that culture would have viewed each of them as historically literal in chronology and details. As I have shown, this "multiple, but conflicting accounts" phenomenon is seen in the other ANE cultures as well. Today, modern fundamentalists have come up with some ways of forcing them to correspond, but that is the result, again, of already drawing the conclusion that they MUST both be literal. When you start without such a presumption, this is very strong evidence that they did NOT view them as literal history.
Again, unless you have some particular need to have these accounts be written in a literal/historical genre, and read the evidence from that perspective, I just don't see how you get there. So, my question is what is the need for them to have been written in that way?