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Whose Law is it anyway?

Lionroot

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I keep reading about the "Mosaic Law", isn't it really God's Law given through Moses?

(signature follows).....
Jud 1:3
Beloved, although I was very eager to write to you about our common salvation, I found it necessary to write appealing to you to contend for the faith that was once for all delivered to the saints.
 

Paul.

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I keep reading about the "Mosaic Law", isn't it really God's Law given through Moses?
Yes it is God's laws given to Moses for the Israelites. The reason it is referred to as the Mosaic Law or the Law of Moses is because this distinguishes it from other God given laws such as the ones given to Adam and Eve in the garden of Eden or to Noah and his family after the Flood.
 
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Freedom63

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I keep reading about the "Mosaic Law", isn't it really God's Law given through Moses?

(signature follows).....
Jud 1:3
Beloved, although I was very eager to write to you about our common salvation, I found it necessary to write appealing to you to contend for the faith that was once for all delivered to the saints.

To attempt to apply it to all people for all time is to suggest that God really cannot think and act in very complex ways. I.E., as if He is not capable of having different purposes for different times and people.
 
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O. Ryan Faust

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Lionroot: I love your question. It really throws a monkey-wrench into the machinery of those who want to duck their responsibility with respect to the law of our sovereign creator.

Adam violated the only command that established God as Adam's sovereign God. God removed him from the place of his dominion.

God raised up Jacob, renamed him Israel and through Moses brought Israel's descendants back into the land he removed Adam from. God was again establishing the order he ordained by supplanting Adam with a guy who's actually named 'usurper' or 'supplanter' (that's what Jacob means).

The laws of God accomplished more than one thing. The 'cause & effect' laws kept them safe from harm (the dietary & sanitary laws). Laws pertaining to the temple and priesthood dealt with sin. The symbolic laws reflected spiritual truths. The laws reflecting the righteous nature and character of YHVH and his only begotten son reveal the image we should conform our lives to.

Christ fulfilled the laws pertaining to the sacrifice for sin. By being born from above into the family of Jesus Christ in heaven, we are applying Jesus' one-time sacrifice to our sin. Therefore, as Christians, we aren't required to offer sacrifices as outlined in the law given to Moses.

Being gentiles not called to an earthly heritage, but a heavenly one, the cause & effect laws pertaining to the flesh aren't required of us. God told Noah that all living things were OK to eat. Gentiles can continue to eat according to whatever ethnic culture they're in, and that's ok.

The symbolic laws were never required to be kept literally. They were always intended to convey spiritual truth, so their original intent is fulfilled without keeping them literally.

Those laws reflecting the nature and character of YHVH and his only begotten son are the standard and basis for righteousness that we choose daily as we reject the nature and character of the old man, Adam.

So, in conclusion, we are called to a standard of righteousness, but as Christians, our standing before YHVH doesn't rely on fulfilling the entire law, Christ fulfilled the law, and his righteousness is imputed to us. We are only called to walk in the newness of life of the indwelling Holy Spirit.
 
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Lionroot

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Paul. said:
Yes it is God's laws given to Moses for the Israelites.

Where its this exclusive language used? I found several places that say the law is the same for the Israelite and the stranger...(exodus 12: 49, numbers 15: 16)

(signature follows).....
Jud 1:3
Beloved, although I was very eager to write to you about our common salvation, I found it necessary to write appealing to you to contend for the faith that was once for all delivered to the saints.
 
Upvote 0