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Orange_County_Chopper
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Wanted to ask this question to my Reformed brethren.
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Oh boy, here we go...
Any answer you get is only speculation. Specualtion is worthless when it comes to the things of God. While we all may have opinions they are just that, opinions. The truth is that we really don't know who they were and it really doesn't matter.Wanted to ask this question to my Reformed brethren.
Any answer you get is only speculation. Specualtion is worthless when it comes to the things of God. While we all may have opinions they are just that, opinions. The truth is that we really don't know who they were and it really doesn't matter.
I find that I can spend all of my time seeking and searching for Christ in all the Scriptures. That is enough for me.
Here is a long article from Answers in Genesis on the subject.
Who Were the Nephilim? - Answers in Genesis
One thing we know from Holy Scripture, the Nephilim were alive before and after Noah's flood. They survived the flood, evidently, or the flood was a large local flood which is what I believe. The flood cleared the area of the Nephilim, who were the offspring of angels and man. This is a literal interpretation of scripture.
Not so.This is not a literal interpretation. A literal interpretation would classify "sons of God" as direct descendants of God who were male. Also, the Bible says their offspring were human--not half-angelic nor half-human; it calls them men of renown, to be specific.
Also, the Bible says their offspring were human--not half-angelic nor half-human; it calls them men of renown, to be specific.
Not so.
The Bible also says that Jesus is a man.
For example, Romans 5:15,
But not as the offence, so also [is] the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, [which is] by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
Does that mean Jesus was JUST a man?
All this shows is that you do not interpret sons of God in Job in a literal sense, either.Not so.
It is indeed a literal interpretation because not all "sons of God" are "direct descendants of God who were male." Elsewhere, the Bible clearly identifies others who are sons of God who are not "direct descendants of God who were male." So, one may interpret the text literally by saying the nefilim were the progeny of the fallen angels (sons of God) and daughters of humans.
Angels are sons of God, see Job 38:4-7.
All this shows is that you do not interpret sons of God in Job in a literal sense, either.
You interpret it to mean angels. In Job, I would interpret it in this way, too.
Again, yes I am interpreting it literally because "sons of God" does in fact mean angels.
Job 38:4
4 Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth? declare, if thou hast understanding.
5 Who hath laid the measures thereof, if thou knowest? or who hath stretched the line upon it?
6 Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened? or who laid the corner stone thereof;
7 When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?
There were "sons of God" who existed when God laid the foundations of the earth, before he created man.
So, sons of God can be angelic beings; therefore, I am interpreting it literally.
I never said this.You are the one making the assumption that sons of God can only be translated literally as human beings.
Scripture says otherwise. A literal translation does not mean it can only be translated one way.
As long as "sons of God" has several meanings, a literal translation can be one of many things.
Again, I don't know why people bring up 1 John. Was 1 John written at the same time as Job?
There was no New Covenant (and thus human "sons of God") at the same time as Job. That's called an anachronism. It's like Muslims calling Jesus a Muslim.
Yes, Israel is called "firstborn son" because God adopted the nation of Israel as His own people (cp. Exo. 3:7; Rom. 9:4). But, the nation of Israel did not exist when God was founding the earth. Only angels did.