Who Goes To Hell?

Danthemailman said:

Unbelievers go to hell. John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

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Dear Mailman: The wonderful passage under consideration does not say unbelievers "go to hell", they are condemned.

I wonder if those condemned ones are part of those the Master declares He will draw unto Himself?

thomas_t said:

... and no Bible verse to back it up.
It's presumption. But let's assume you were to be right here and a Bible verse saying so exists... this doesn't mean it is not endless. If you think otherwise... prove your point please.

and again: no Bible verse to back it up. Also presumption.


Ah that's an intelligent thought well put in eloquent words.
I believe that God takes the anguish and fears of the earthly victims of crime seriously.
If they are admitted to heaven... then the former perpetrators should not make their heaven a hell a second time... like they did on earth.
Bread cannot rape, murder, rob, insult... man can.
Your Universal "Reconciliation" completely does not take into account the needs of the victims. Whether the perpetrators make them suffer again, after having spent some time in a temporary hell perhaps, ... who cares? ... you might think.
Victims need protection - not reconciliation, please.

EDITED (first paragraph)

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Reconciliation of ta pavnte is not my idea Thomas. The Lord Isous declares He will draw all mankind unto Himself. That He will surely do!

Our God cares for the good, the bad, and the ugly.

He, the refuge for them all (the radical all of pas), will sort the whole ghastly mess out in the dispensation of the fullness of times as He brings the same radical all into at-one-ment with Himself.

Danthemailman said:

Unbelievers go to hell. John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

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Hey buddy, good to see you on the topic.
A year ago I would have been in 100 percent agreement with your post.

In the meantime I have been discovering some challenging thoughts.
On the subject of condemnation, here is a comparative scripture to consider.
- One trespass = condemnation for all
- One righteous act = justification for all
- The disobedience of one = many were made sinners (many = all)
- The obedience of one = many will be made righteous (many = all)

Romans 5:18-19
Consequently, just as one trespass resulted in condemnation for all people,
so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people.
19 For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners,
so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous.

Saint Steven said:

Hey buddy, good to see you on the topic. A year ago I would have been in 100 percent agreement with your post.
In the meantime I have been discovering some challenging thoughts.
On the subject of condemnation, here is a comparative scripture to consider.
- One trespass = condemnation for all
- One righteous act = justification for all
- The disobedience of one = many were made sinners (many = all)
- The obedience of one = many will be made righteous (many = all)
Romans 5:18-19
Consequently, just as one trespass resulted in condemnation for all people,
so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people.
19 For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners,
so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous.

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Lest the unwary be misled by heterodox doctrine.
Here it is being presented that "the many" in Rom 5:19 really means "all."
Paul used the word "pollus"/"many" 71 times. He used the word "pas"/"all" 375 times When Paul wanted to say “all” he used "pas" not "pollus"/”many.”
Paul used "oi polloi"/"the many" ten times where it clearly does not mean "all."
In one verse Paul used both "all" and "pollus" in the same verse, Rom 12:4.
Romans 12:4, Romans 15:22, 1 Corinthians 10:17, 1 Corinthians 10:33, 2 Corinthians 2:17, 2 Corinthians 8:15, Ephesians 2:4, Colossians 4:13, 1 Timothy 3:13

Der Alter said:

Lest the unwary be misled by heterodox doctrine.
Here it is being presented that "the many" in Rom 5:19 really means "all."
Paul used the word "pollus"/"many" 71 times. He used the word "pas"/"all" 375 times When Paul wanted to say “all” he used "pas" not "pollus"/”many.”
Paul used "oi polloi"/"the many" ten times where it clearly does not mean "all."
In one verse Paul used both "all" and "pollus" in the same verse, Rom 12:4.
Romans 12:4, Romans 15:22, 1 Corinthians 10:17, 1 Corinthians 10:33, 2 Corinthians 2:17, 2 Corinthians 8:15, Ephesians 2:4, Colossians 4:13, 1 Timothy 3:13

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XYZ said:

Yep did you notice the "MANY" does not mean the "ALL"? Again did you know that the "MANY" are the "JUST"?

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The "many" (v.19a) are not the "just". They are those who "were constituted sinners" (v.19a) "through one offense" (v.19a), i.e. Adam's sin. That "many" is, therefore, all mankind with the exception of Christ. Hence "many", not "all" mankind.

Rom 5:18 Consequently, then, as it was through one offense for ALL MANKIND for condemnation, thus also it is through one just act for ALL MANKIND for life's justifying."
Rom 5:19 For even as, through the disobedience of the one man, THE MANY were constituted sinners, thus also, through the obedience of the One, THE MANY shall be constituted just."

Verse 19 uses the word "many" instead of "all" as in verse 18. Not all men have been "constituted sinners" (v.19), Christ being an obvious exception. Some would also include as exceptions those humans who have been this moment conceived, preborn babies, infants, etc. So, therefore, Paul says "many" in verse 19 rather than "all".

Rom.5:18 Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for ALL MEN, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for ALL MEN.
19 For just as through the disobedience of the one man THE MANY were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man THE MANY will be made righteous.

If Paul didn't wish to parallel both occurrences of "THE MANY" in verse 19, then he would have said "some" or "few" instead of "THE MANY" in the second occurrence. Clearly he was teaching by the parallel of two occurrences of "THE MANY" (v.19) that all those who "were made sinners" will "be made righteous".

Paul makes a parallel between "the many" who were condemned & sinners and those who will be justified & constituted just.

“In Romans 5, the justification is co-extensive with the condemnation. Since all share in one, all share in the other. If only a certain portion of the human race had partaken of the sin of Adam, only a certain portion would partake of the justification of Christ. But St. Paul affirms all to have been involved in one, and all to be included in the other.”

Therefore there is salvation after death. And corrective punishment. Jesus shall see of the travail of His soul & be satisfied. Not satisfied a little bit, but the vast majority fried alive forever [or annihilated for eternity].

"He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities." (Isa.53:11). For how "many" (not few) did He "bear their iniquities"? All.

"Paul declares, however, that the effects of Christ's obedience are far greater for mankind than the effect of Adam's fall. For the third (5:15) and fourth (5:17) times in this chapter he makes explicit use of the 'qal wahomer' ("from minor to major") form of argument that is commonly used in rabbinic literature, expressed by "much more"...cf. earlier use at 5:9,10...And as in the case of the typology previously used (5:14), here, too, the form of the argument is antithetical. The grace of God extended to humanity in the event of Christ's death has abounded "for the many" (5:15b), which corresponds to the "all" of 5:12,18. The free gift given by God in Christ more than matches the sin of Adam and its effects; it exceeds it..."

"Contrasts are also seen in the results of the work of each. Adam's trespass or disobedience has brought condemnation (κατάκριμα, 5:18); through his act many were made sinners (5:19). Christ's "act of righteousness" results in "justification of life" (δικαίωσιν ζωῆς) for all (5:18). The term δικαίωσιν can be translated as "justification" (NIV, NRSV; but RSV has "acquittal") - the opposite of "condemnation". The word ζωῆς ("of life") is a genitive of result, providing the outcome of justification, so that the phrase may be rendered "justification resulting in life". 108...

108. BDAG 250 (δικαίωσιν): "acquittal that brings life". The construction is variously called a "genitive of apposition", an "epexegetical genitive" or "genitive of purpose". Cf. BDF 92 (S166). The meaning is the same in each case: justification which brings life."

"The universality of grace in Christ is shown to surpass the universality of sin. Christ's "act of righteousness" is the opposite of Adam's "tresspass" and equivalent to Christ's "obedience", which was fulfilled in his being obedient unto death (Phil 2:8). The results of Christ's righteous action and obedience are "justification resulting in life for all persons"...5:18...and "righteousness" for "many" (5:19). The term "many" in 5:19 is equivalent to "all persons", and that is so for four reasons: (1) the parallel in 5:18 speaks in its favor; (2) even as within 5:19 itself, "many were made sinners" applies to all mankind, so "many will be made righteous" applies to all; (3) the same parallelism appears in 5:15, at which "many" refers to "all"; and (4) the phrase "for many" is a Semitism which means "all", as in Deutero-Isaiah 52:14; 53:11-12; Mark...10:45; 14:24; Heb.12:15. The background for Paul's expression is set forth in Deutero-Isaiah, where it is said that "the righteous one"...the Lord's servant, shall make "many" to be accounted righteous, and he shall bear their sins ...Isa.53:11..."

"It is significant, and even astounding, that justification is here said to be world-embracing. Nothing is said about faith as a prerequisite for justification to be effective, nor about faith's accepting it." (Paul's Letter To The Romans: A Commentary, Arland J. Hultgren, Eerdmans, 2011, 804 pg, p.227, 229)

ClementofA said:

If "unbelievers go to hell", then everyone goes to "hell", for ALL have been unbelievers.

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ALL have been (past tense) unbelievers, but not all remain (present tense) unbelievers. Whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. (Acts 10:43) Those who remain in unbelief do not receive remission of sins. It’s really not complicated.

FineLinen said:

Dear Mailman: The wonderful passage under consideration does not say unbelievers "go to hell", they are not condemned.

I wonder if those condemned ones are part of those the Master declares He will draw unto Himself?

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You and I apparently have different definitions of the word “condemned.“

Saint Steven said:

Glad to help.
What do you make of this?

Romans 11:32
For God has bound everyone over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all.

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I think that is not same as all will live eternally. Even if God is merciful for all, not all become righteous. And as it is said, eternal life is for righteous.

These will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.
Mat. 25:46

Saint Steven said:

@Lazarus Short do you have your list of Bible translations that do not contain the word "hell" handy? There is a question in post #253 about this. Thanks. cc: @thomas_t

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I'm glad to help:

A FEW BIBLE VERSIONS WITHOUT HELL

Wesley's New Testament (1755)

Scarlett's N.T. (1798)

The New Testament in Greek and English (Kneeland, 1823)

Young's Literal Translation (1891)

Twentieth Century New Testament (1900)

Rotherham's Emphasized Bible (reprinted, 1902)

Fenton's Holy Bible in Modern English (1903)

Weymouth's New Testament in Modern Speech (1903)

The New Testament, James Moffat, (1917)

Jewish Publication Society Bible Old Testament (1917)

Panin's Numeric English New Testament (1914)

The New Testament, Charles B. Williams, 1937

The People's New Covenant (Overbury, 1925)

Hanson's New Covenant (1884)

Western N.T. (1926)

NT of our Lord and Savior Anointed (Tomanek, 1958)

Concordant Literal NT (1983)

The N.T., A Translation (Clementson, 1938)

Emphatic Diaglott, Greek/English Interlinear (Wilson, 1942)

New American Bible (1970)

Restoration of Original Sacred Name Bible (1976)

Tanakh, The Holy Scriptures, Old Testament (1985)

The New Testament, A New Translation (Greber, 1980)

Christian Bible (1991)

World English Bible (in progress)

Orthodox Jewish Brit Chadasha [NT Only]

Original Bible Project (Dr. James Tabor, still in translation)

Zondervan Parallel N.T. in Greek and English (1975)**

Int. NASB-NIV Parallel N.T. in Greek and English (1993)**

A Critical Paraphrase of the N.T. by Vincent T. Roth (1960)

New Testament, Recovery Version, Living Stream Ministry, 1991

New American Bible Revised Edition (NABRE) Roman Catholic

Holy Bible In Its Original Order, Fred R. Coulter, 2007

Etymological N.T. (An Ultra Literal Translation, 2011, Michael Wine

Aramaic Peshitta New Testament, 2006, Janet M. Magiera

MirrorWord N.T. (Francois du Toit) still in translation

Victorious Gospel of Jesus Christ, Electronic Ver. (Tentmaker Ministries)

thomas_t said:

In the other thread you said, hell is a creation of man and not of God.
I did a quick research that at least one translation offers quite a lot of occurances of the word "hell" in the Bible, here Bible Search: hell.

(I couldn't answer you in the other thread)
I think we should take hell seriously.

Thomas

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Thanks to the KJV's 400 year monopoly in English speaking congregations, hell has become the catchall term. Some credit is also owed to Augustine the infernalist and the Roman Catholic Church. Many modern scholars acknowledge the mis/over-translation of terms like Sheol, Hades, Tartarus, Gehenna and perhaps that is why the word 'hell' is beginning to disappear from new translations.

thomas_t said:

... and no Bible verse to back it up.
It's presumption. But let's assume you were to be right here and a Bible verse saying so exists... this doesn't mean it is not endless. If you think otherwise... prove your point please.
and again: no Bible verse to back it up. Also presumption.

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1 Corinthians 15:25-28: For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. The last enemy to be destroyed is death. When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

John 12:32 And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.

Revelation 20:14 And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death.

thomas_t said:

Ah that's an intelligent thought well put in eloquent words.
I believe that God takes the anguish and fears of the earthly victims of crime seriously.
If they are admitted to heaven... then the former perpetrators should not make their heaven a hell a second time... like they did on earth.
Bread cannot rape, murder, rob, insult... man can.
Your Universal "Reconciliation" completely does not take into account the needs of the victims. Whether the perpetrators make them suffer again, after having spent some time in a temporary hell perhaps, ... who cares? ... you might think.
Victims need protection - not reconciliation, please.

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I also believe that God takes humanity's cry for justice seriously, and this is where judgment comes in. Such a judgment is not aimed at distinguishing between believers and unbelievers, elect and non-elect, but between victims and perpetrators. God's creative judgment is that of severe grace and transforming fire which will save lives, heal wounds, restore dignity, and reconcile iniquities and that is how he will "wipe away every tear. There will be no more mourning or crying or pain, for the old order of things has passed away." (Revelation 21:4)

As @Shrewd Manager put in in another thread, "The best outcome would be sincere repentance and reform of criminals."

Isaiah 11 states "The wolf will live with the lamb, the leopard will lie down with the goat, the calf and the lion and the yearling together; The cow will feed with the bear, their young will lie down together, and the lion will eat straw like the ox."

Here we see predators and prey lying together in the New Heaven and New Earth. These are symbols of PEACE and RECONCILIATION in the Kingdom of God. Universal reconciliation is NOT ignoring the needs of victims but rather we believe that true healing can only come from an exchange of repentance and forgiveness, mirrored through our own relationship with the Father.

Danthemailman said:

You and I apparently have different definitions of the word “condemned.“

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Dear Mailman: I will tell you exactly what condemnation means. In Romans 11:33 the word condemnation is krima.

The koine krima is a verdict resulting from an investigation leading to a decision by our Father.

Romans 11:33 =

"O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and the knowledge of God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past tracing out!

"Have you ever come on anything quite like this extravagant generosity of God, this deep, deep wisdom? It’s way over our heads. We’ll never figure it out.

Is there anyone around who can explain God?
Anyone smart enough to tell him what to do?
Anyone who has done him such a huge favor
that God has to ask his advice?
Everything comes from him;
Everything happens through him;
Everything ends up in him.
Always glory! Always praise!
Yes. Yes. Yes." -MSG-

thomas_t said:

and no Bible verse to back it up.
It's presumption.

and again: no Bible verse to back it up. Also presumption.

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Sorry, it has taken me a while to get to this. I saw it earlier and wanted to provide the missing scriptures for you. The third one is probably most important to the discussion.
When was Christ lifted up? When he was lifted up, he drew all humankind to himself.

Revelation 1:18 KJV
I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen;
and have the keys of hell and of death.

Revelation 20:14 KJV
And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire.
This is the second death.

John 12:32
And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.”

1213 said:

I think that is not same as all will live eternally. Even if God is merciful for all, not all become righteous. And as it is said, eternal life is for righteous.

These will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.
Mat. 25:46

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This scripture says they will.
Verse 19 says through the disobedience one, many were made sinners. (many = all)
And through the obedience of one, many will be made righteous. (many = all)

Romans 5:18-19
Consequently, just as one trespass resulted in condemnation for all people,
so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people.
19 For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners,
so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous.

1213 said:

Even if God is merciful for all, not all become righteous.

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Follow the bouncing ball > >

In Adam1 the polus were "made sinners" (accounted sinners).

The other side of the Divine equation =

The Last Adam = the identical polus "made righteous".

agapelove said:

Thanks to the KJV's 400 year monopoly in English speaking congregations, hell has become the catchall term. Some credit is also owed to Augustine the infernalist and the Roman Catholic Church. Many modern scholars acknowledge the mis/over-translation of terms like Sheol, Hades, Tartarus, Gehenna and perhaps that is why the word 'hell' is beginning to disappear from new translations.
...

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"Hell" may be disappearing from new translations not because "hell" is not the correct translation of the Hebrew words "sheol" and "Ge Hinnom", which were translated "hades" and "Gehenna" in the 225 BC LXX, and the NT.
…..According to three irrefutable Jewish sources; the Jewish Encyclopedia, Encyclopedia Judaica and the Talmud, quoted below, among the Jews in Israel before and during the time of Jesus there was a belief in a place of everlasting torment of the wicked and they called it both sheol and gehinnom, hades and gehenna in the LXX and NT.
…..There were different groups within Judaism; Sadducees, Pharisees, Essenes etc. and there were different beliefs about resurrection, hell etc. That there were differing beliefs does not rebut, refute, change or disprove anything in this post.
[Note, this is according to the ancient Jews, long before the Christian era, NOT supposed bias of modern Christian translators. DA]
When Jesus taught e.g.,
…..These teachings tacitly reaffirmed and sanctioned a then existing significant Jewish view of eternal hell, outlined above. In Matt. 18:6, 26:24 and Luk 10:12, see above, Jesus teaches that there is a punishment worse than death or nonexistence.
…..A punishment worse than death without mercy is also mentioned in Hebrews 10:28-31.
…..Jesus is quoted as using the word death 17 times in the gospels, if He wanted to say eternal death in Matt 25:46, that is what He would have said but He didn’t, He said “eternal punishment.” The Sadducees did not believe in the resurrection, they knew that everybody died; rich, poor, young, old, good, bad, men, women, children, infants and knew that often it had nothing to do with punishment and was permanent. When Jesus taught “eternal punishment” they would not have understood it as merely death, it would have meant something worse to them.
…..Concerning “punishment” one early church father wrote,
…..Jesus undoubtedly knew what the Jews, believed about hell. If that Jewish teaching was wrong, why didn’t Jesus tell them there was no hell, no eternal punishment etc? Why would Jesus teach “eternal punishment,” etc. to Jews who believed, "The Lord, the Almighty, will punish them on the Day of Judgment by putting fire and worms into their flesh, so that they cry out with pain unto all eternity," which would only encourage and reinforce their beliefs?

Lazarus Short said:

I'm glad to help:
A FEW BIBLE VERSIONS WITHOUT HELL......

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One can find a Bible "version" that will support almost any heterodox belief.
Greek is now, and has always been, the language of the Eastern Greek Orthodox church. Who, better than the native Greek speaking scholars who translated the EOB, knows the correct meaning of Greek words, e.g. “aionios,” “kolasis,”and “Gehenna?”
…..Note, in the EOB, on pg. 180 is this footnote.
Paul uses “αιωνιως/aionios,” in 1 Tim 1:17 synonymous with “αιδιος/aidios” in Rom 1:20, see below.
The Eastern/Greek Orthodox Bible EOB—New Testament 96
Matthew 25:46 Then he will answer them saying ‘Amen. I tell you: as much as you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to me.' “These [[ones on the left]] will go away into eternal punishment.[κολασιν αιονιον/kolasin aiōnion] but the righteous into eternal life.
= = = = = = =
Romans 1:20 For since the creation of the world, his invisible things are clearly seen. They perceived through created things, even his everlasting [τε αιδιος/te aidios] power and divinity.
= = = = = = = =
1 Timothy 1:17 Now, to the eternal [των αιωνων/tōn aiōnōn] King. immortal. invisible, to God who alone is wise, be honor and glory unto ages of ages. Amen.
In 1 Tim 1:17 Paul not only uses "aionios" synonymous with "aidios," in Rom 1:20, but also defines it by pairing it with "immortal" in the same verse.
https://azbyka.ru/otechnik/books/or...tament-(The-Eastern-Greek-Orthodox-Bible).pdf
The Eastern/Greek Orthodox Bible EOB—New Testament 96 can be D/L at the link above. If anyone chooses to consult the EOB version I suggest they read the preface which summarizes the extensive Greek scholarship supporting this translation.
…..

Der Alter said:

"Hell" may be disappearing from new translations not because "hell" is not the correct translation of the Hebrew words "sheol" and "Ge Hinnom", which were translated "hades" and "Gehenna" in the 225 BC LXX, and the NT.
…..According to three irrefutable Jewish sources; the Jewish Encyclopedia, Encyclopedia Judaica and the Talmud, quoted below, among the Jews in Israel before and during the time of Jesus there was a belief in a place of everlasting torment of the wicked and they called it both sheol and gehinnom, hades and gehenna in the LXX and NT.

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You have shared this eyesore of a copy and paste about three times now. The only source I consider "irrefutable" is the Word of God.

1. The Hebrew word Sheol clearly means "the grave" or "the abode of all the dead, good and bad." King David said that if he made his bed in Sheol, God would be there. Job asked to be hidden from suffering in Sheol. Israel himself said that he and his son Joseph would be reunited in Sheol when they died. The sons of Korah claimed in a Psalm that God would redeem them from Sheol. In each case, the men speaking were clearly talking about dying and going to the grave, not "hell."

2. Hades is the equivalent of Sheol, as you mentioned with its eventual translation in 225 BC. Everyone went to Sheol/Hades, not just the "wicked." To condemn a person or nation to Sheol/Hades was to say that they would die, be destroyed or vanish from this earth, not suffer eternal punishment.

3. I have already given you evidence of how Jesus employed the term Gehenna. (In the Jeremiah tradition NOT Enoch's).

I suggest you start turning to the Word of God instead of your Jewish Encyclopedias.

agapelove said:

....
3. I have already given you evidence of how Jesus employed the term Gehenna. (In the Jeremiah tradition NOT Enoch's).
I suggest you start turning to the Word of God instead of your Jewish Encyclopedias.

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I have not seen any evidence for anything by you. Nothing but assumptions/presupposition what you think something means.
You have not/cannot prove how Jesus was using Gehenna. Jeremiah 31:38-40 does not prove it. Why would people in Jesus time fear being thrown into the valley that was holy to God? And where does Jeremiah say anything about unquenchable fire or worms that do not die.
I suggest you read actual Jewish history and stop making up your own meaning for passages.

Der Alter said:

I have not seen any evidence for anything by you. Nothing but assumptions/presupposition what you think something means.
You have not/cannot prove how Jesus was using Gehenna. Jeremiah 31:38-40 does not prove it. Why would people in Jesus time fear being thrown into the valley that was holy to God? And where does Jeremiah say anything about unquenchable fire or worms that do not die.
I suggest you read actual Jewish history and stop making up your own meaning for passages.

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"I will kindle an unquenchable fire in the gates of Jerusalem that will consume her fortresses." Jeremiah 17:27

You also have not and CANNOT prove how Jesus was using Gehenna. No one can without bringing their own presuppositions to the table. However all my claims have come from the Bible whereas you seem to only know how to quote from Jewish Encyclopedias. You are free to not believe me, I won't waste my time explaining the same things over and over again to you.

Der Alter said:

"Hell" may be disappearing

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Der Alter said:

Incorrect.

…According to three irrefutable Jewish sources; the Jewish Encyclopedia, Encyclopedia Judaica and the Talmud, quoted below, among the Jews in Israel before and during the time of Jesus there was a belief in a place of everlasting torment of the wicked and they called it both sheol and gehinnom, hades and gehenna in the NT.

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Irrefutable? The over 100 year out of date Jewish Encyclopedia? What evidence gives you that idea? You make it sound equal to inspired Scripture. Is it your Pope?

As for all 3 of your allegedly "irrefutable Jewish sources", including the Talmud, Jesus said to beware of the teaching of the Pharisees, who BTW believed in endless punishment.

"Jesus warned His disciples to “watch out and beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and the Sadducee's,” which was their false teaching (Matt. 16:6,12)."

As for your quoting from Jewish myths, namely the Book of Enoch & Judith, which are not even included in the Jewish canon, Scripture says:

"Not giving heed to Jewish myths, and commandments of men, that turn from the truth." (Titus 1:14).

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" (2 Tim.3:16)

Jesus, speaking to Pharisees, said:

John 8:44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.

2 Timothy 4:4: And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables.

Der Alter said:

There were different groups within Judaism; Sadducees, Pharisees, Essenes etc. and there were different beliefs about resurrection, hell etc. That there were differing beliefs does not rebut, refute, change or disprove anything in this post.

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"Jesus warned His disciples to “watch out and beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and the Sadducee's,” which was their false teaching (Matt. 16:6,12)."

So of what relevance is anything you have to offer from them? Or anything from your 3 so-called "irrefutable Jewish sources"?

Der Alter said:

Jewish Encyclopedia, Gehenna
The place where children were sacrificed to the god Moloch … in the "valley of the son of Hinnom," to the south of Jerusalem (Josh. xv. 8, passim; II Kings xxiii. 10; Jer. ii. 23; vii. 31-32; xix. 6, 13-14). … the valley was deemed to be accursed, and "Gehenna" therefore soon became a figurative equivalent for "hell." Hell, like paradise, was created by God (Sotah 22a);[“Soon” in this verse would be about 700 BC +/-]
[Note, this is according to the ancient Jews, long before the Christian era, NOT supposed bias of Christian translators. DA]

(I)n general …sinners go to hell immediately after their death. The famous teacher Johanan b. Zakkai wept before his death because he did not know whether he would go to paradise or to hell (Ber. 28b). The pious go to paradise, and sinners to hell(B.M. 83b).
But as regards the heretics, etc., and Jeroboam, Nebat's son, hell shall pass away, but they shall not pass away" (R. H. 17a; comp. Shab. 33b). All that descend into Gehenna shall come up again, with the exception of three classes of men: those who have committed adultery, or shamed their neighbors, or vilified them (B. M. 58b).[/i]
… heretics and the Roman oppressors go to Gehenna, and the same fate awaits the Persians, the oppressors of the Babylonian Jews (Ber. 8b). When Nebuchadnezzar descended into hell, [שאול/Sheol] all its inhabitants were afraid that he was coming to rule over them (Shab. 149a; comp. Isa. xiv. 9-10). The Book of Enoch [x. 6, xci. 9, etal] also says that it is chiefly the heathen who are to be cast into the fiery pool on the Day of Judgment (x. 6, xci. 9, et al). "The Lord, the Almighty, will punish them on the Day of Judgment by putting fire and worms into their flesh, so that they cry out with pain unto all eternity" (Judith xvi. 17). The sinners in Gehenna will be filled with pain when God puts back the souls into the dead bodies on the Day of Judgment, according toIsa. xxxiii. 11 (Sanh. 108b).
Link: Jewish Encyclopedia Online
Note, scripture references are highlighted in blue.
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Encyclopedia Judaica:
Gehinnom (Heb. גֵּי בֶן־הִנֹּם, גֵּי בְנֵי הִנֹּם, גֵּיא בֶן־הִנֹּם, גֵּיא הִנֹּם; Gr. Γέεννα; "Valley of Ben-Hinnom, Valley of [the Son (s) of] Hinnom," Gehenna), a valley south of Jerusalem on one of the borders between the territories of Judah and Benjamin, between the Valley of *Rephaim and *En-Rogel (Josh. 15:8; 18:16). It is identified with Wadi er-Rababi.
…..During the time of the Monarchy, Gehinnom, at a place called Topheth, was the site of a cult which involved the burning of children (II Kings 23:10; Jer. 7:31; 32:35 et al.; ). Jeremiah repeatedly condemned this cult and predicted that on its account Topheth and the Valley of the Son of Hinnom would be called the Valley of the "Slaughter" (Jer. 19:5–6).
In Judaism the name Gehinnom is generally used as an appellation of the place of torment reserved for the wicked after death. The New Testament used the Greek form Gehenna in the same sense.
Gehinnom
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Talmud -Tractate Rosh Hashanah Chapter 1.
The school of Hillel says: . . . but as for Minim, [followers of Jesus] informers and disbelievers, who deny the Torah, or Resurrection, or separate themselves from the congregation, or who inspire their fellowmen with dread of them, or who sin and cause others to sin, as did Jeroboam the son of Nebat and his followers, they all descend to Gehenna, and are judged there from generation to generation, as it is said [Isa. lxvi. 24]:
"And they shall go forth and look upon the carcases of the men who have transgressed against Me; for their worm shall not die, neither shall their fire be quenched." Even when Gehenna will be destroyed, they will not be consumed, as it is written[Psalms, xlix. 15]: "And their forms wasteth away in the nether world," which the sages comment upon to mean that their forms shall endure even when the grave is no more.
Concerning them Hannah says [I Sam. ii. 10]: "The adversaries of the Lord shall be broken to pieces."
Link: Tract Rosh Hashana: Chapter I.

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Can any of these cherry picked opinions be supported by Scripture? If not then how are they worth anything? "All Scripture...is profitable for doctrine" (2 Tim.3:16), not your above quoted non Christian Jewish opinions & myths:

"Not giving heed to Jewish myths, and commandments of men, that turn from the truth." (Titus 1:14).

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" (2 Tim.3:16)

Der Alter said:

When Jesus taught e.g.,
• “Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels:” Matthew 25:41
• "these shall go away into eternal punishment, Matthew 25:46"
• "the fire of hell where the fire is not quenched and the worm does not die, 3X Mark 9:43-48"
• "cast into a fiery furnace where there will be wailing and gnashing of teeth,” Matthew 13:42, Matthew 13:50
• “But whoso shall offend one of these little ones which believe in me, it were better for him that a millstone were hanged about his neck, and that he were drowned in the depth of the sea.” Matthew 18:6
• “And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.” Matthew 7:23
• “woe unto that man by whom the Son of man is betrayed! it had been good for that man if he had not been born. ” Matthew 26:24
• “But I say unto you, that it shall be more tolerable in that day for Sodom, than for that city.” Luke 10:12
…..These teachings tacitly reaffirmed and sanctioned a then existing significant Jewish view of eternal hell, outlined above. In Matt. 18:6, 26:24 and Luk 10:12, see above, Jesus teaches that there is a punishment worse than death or nonexistence.

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Nonsense. This has all been addressed before (see urls below).

could an 'eternal punishment' simply mean that once instituted it will not change?

could an 'eternal punishment' simply mean that once instituted it will not change?

Why are so many Christians against annihilation in hell when scripture supports it?

Der Alter said:

…..A punishment worse than death without mercy is also mentioned in Hebrews 10:28-31.
Heb 10:28 He that despised Moses' law died without mercy under two or three witnesses:
29 Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?
30 For we know him that hath said, Vengeance belongeth unto me, I will recompense, saith the Lord. And again, The Lord shall judge his people.
31 It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.

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Heb.10:28 A man that hath set at nought Moses' law dieth without compassion on the word of two or three witnesses: 29 of how much sorer punishment, think ye, shall he be judged worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?

Generally capital punishment under Moses' law was by stoning. Stoning to death is not a very sore or long lasting punishment. People suffered far worse deaths via the torture methods of the eternal hell believing Medieval Inquisitionists and the German Nazis under Hitler.

Therefore, if the writer of Hebrews believed that wicked, rebellious, Christ rejecters would be punished with something so monstrous as being endlessly annihilated or tormented, he would not have chosen to compare their punishment to something so lame as being stoned to death. Clearly he did not believe Love Omnipotent is an unfeeling terminator machine or sadist who abandons forever the beings He created in His own image & likeness so easily.

Der Alter said:

…..Jesus undoubtedly knew what the Jews, believed about hell. If the Jews were wrong, why didn’t Jesus tell them there was no hell, no eternal punishment etc?

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He did reject "eternal punishment", tortures & annihilation, though not "hell" (Hades, Gehenna, etc):

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Der Alter said:

Why would Jesus teach “eternal punishment,” etc. to Jews who believed, "The Lord, the Almighty, will punish them on the Day of Judgment by putting fire and worms into their flesh, so that they cry out with pain unto all eternity," which would only encourage and reinforce their beliefs?

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Jesus didn't teach ECT. And the source of that quote is from the book of Judith which the Jews themselves rejected as non canonical, though you erroneously called it Scripture. Moreover, as i've shown in other posts to you, the translation from Judith you've posted has been mistranslated from the ancient Greek. And since Scripture explicitly warns against books like Judith, why are you "giving heed to" them instead of Scripture:

"Not giving heed to Jewish myths, and commandments of men, that turn from the truth." (Titus 1:14).

2 Timothy 4:4: And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables.