- Apr 27, 2005
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All I can do is repeat the question, and hope that you won't answer the question with a question. IF the NT existed in the 1st and 2nd century what was the official authority that established which texts were divinely inspired for inclusion and which were not?
First, history has no proof. You sound as if history can be evidence itself is false premise. The so-called Canon was developed intangibly and progressively as it was not a necessity at the beginning to have a Canon at all. it was started possibly from the late second century that Christians were facing the challenge from the false writings not legitimately flowing around. This drove the need of a more formal and explicit set of legitimate books we call Canon today. Eusebius just compiled what already existed as a set of legitimate and authenticated books for us to call them a canon. Those books are authenticated because they are used as legitimate books by the early fathers, especially those assigned as bishops.
It's not formed all of a sudden as you tried to portray. How those books were considered legitimate by the early church fathers may not be fully evidenced, this is the nature of what history itself is. What we call evidence today is from the letters and opinions expressed in works and letters of the early church fathers. From these works and letter it can be told that the so-called Canon was not formed all of a sudden in several days. It was in a progressive fashion and the need for a more explicit Canon was to counter the attack from the false gospel and heretic writings.
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