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Which Day of the Week is the Sabbath?

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Isaiah 53

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Why would I take the writings of a 17th century Protestant over the historical writings of the ECF? I do thank you for the post.

PAX CHRISTI
 
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tall73

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Sorry, I am not following you here. There was no deep spiritual meaning here to the use of the word sabbatwn. It simply meant on the first day of the week. Please consult oldsage's post on usage.
 
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Cliff2

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oldsage said:
personally I don't believe the Catholic Church is hiding any documents, nor do I believe they altered them to suit their purpose. I don't believe a conspiracy is going on either.

You maybe at least partly right.

The RCC allowed DR. SAMUELE BACCHIOCCHI to study at their own university in Rome at the Vatican.

He was the first person to have this to be allowed to do this who was not a RC.

So that was a good start by the RCC and very good of them to allow him to go in and study the Church documents.

Click here for more info on Dr Sam B. He is a very interesting person to listen to as he is Italian and still speaks with a very strong Italian sound. They allowed him free and open access to all that he wanted to see.

You can't ask for more than that.
 
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Debi1967

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Isaiah 53 said:
Why would I take the writings of a 17th century Protestant over the historical writings of the ECF? I do thank you for the post.

PAX CHRISTI
Isaiah53, my Brother, long time no see how are you?

ps..... trust me they are not all bad people .... LOL .... and some of them actually like me can you believe that????? J/K...

Pax Christi
Debi
 
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oldsage

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ra123 said:
Palehorse, ever hear of the Young's literal translation? I don't have it but it translated it there good, http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/tools/printer-friendly.pl?book=Mat&chapter=28&version=yng&Go.x=18&Go.y=10

I have Young's, it really isn't a translation in the sense that a translation trys to give you what the author is saying. it is more like greek words in English dress. I personally think it is a poor translation. Of the 28 English translations I have that is the only one that renders it that way...and probably because it is trying to be too literal and not really giving the meaning of the phrase.
 
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ra123

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If it's the same word tall, why don't you read it like that,

In the end of the of week, as it began to dawn toward the first of the week,

both are the word sabbaths

In the end of the sabbaths, as it began to dawn toward the first of the sabbaths,

I hope that gives more faith to understand God's new day.

tall73 said:
Sorry, I am not following you here. There was no deep spiritual meaning here to the use of the word sabbatwn. It simply meant on the first day of the week. Please consult oldsage's post on usage.
 
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oldsage

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The thing is, the writer of the Book of Hebrews isn't arguing for or against Sabbath Keeping, the context of the Book is talking about the world to come. So it only mentions Sabbath Keeping incidentally. It really has nothing to do with the topic at hand.
 
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TrustAndObey

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Here's an interesting view on "mia sabbaton"......

http://www.goodnewsaboutgod.com/resurrection/res1.htm

This person believes it means "one of the sabbaths" and is referring to the one of the sabbaths involved in Passover and wasn't Sunday at all.

??
 
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oldsage

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Isaiah 53 said:
Why would I take the writings of a 17th century Protestant over the historical writings of the ECF? I do thank you for the post.

PAX CHRISTI

The post was in response to being asked to cite sabbath keeping in history. That was all it was.
 
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oldsage

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It is like the word blue I can say the sky is blue, but I can also say I am feeling blue..same word different meaning...greek words do have more than one meaning.
 
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ra123

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TrustandObey, thanks for the link, I have one too. I found it excellent, here is an excerpt,
“Week” or “Sabbaths”?

Matthew 28:1 is translated: “In the end of the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week [the translators italicized the word day to indicate it was not in the original], came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.”

The translators correctly translated the Greek word “opse” as “end.” It is a word also translated as “even” as in Mark 11:19, “And when even was come, he went out of the city.” Since the seventh day Sabbath ended at sundown, on Saturday, when it had become dark, the Sabbath Day was past. Therefore, the first few words in Matthew 28:1 are correctly translated “in the end.”

The translators also correctly translated the Greek word “mia” as “first.” The Greek word “mia” is translated as “one” more than 50 times in the New Testament. It was also translated as “first” eight times in the New Testament. For example “mia” is used in Titus 3:10 to say, “A man that is an heretick after the first [Greek “mia”] and second admonition reject.”

As we go on in our study, we will see that both the translation “first” and the translation “one” apply to the Greek word “mia” used in Matthew 28:1.

But it is the Greek word “Sabbaths” that is found in Matthew 28:1 that surprises us. Amazingly, the Greek shows that the verse really says, “In the end of Sabbaths [plural], at the dawning on toward the first of the Sabbaths [not “week”].” The second word “Sabbaths” in this verse is identical to the first word “Sabbaths.” Why did the translators change the second “Sabbaths” to “week”? First of all the word “week” is singular whereas “Sabbaths” is plural. As we have seen, the Bible specifically prohibits a change of this kind. Moreover, God very carefully used precisely the same word “Sabbaths” both in the phrase “the end of the Sabbaths” and in the phrase “the first of the Sabbaths.” Why did they change the plural word “Sabbaths” in the phrase “the end of the Sabbaths” to a singular word “Sabbath,” and why did they change the word “Sabbaths” in the phrase “the first of the Sabbaths” to the phrase “to the first of the week”?

We can speculate why the translators might have been tempted to change the second word “Sabbaths” to week. Christ went to the cross on Friday and was in the tomb on the Old Testament Sabbath, the seventh day of the week. But Sunday morning? How can this Sunday be a Sabbath when the Sabbath is past? And so the translators guessed or decided not to translate that second use of the word “Sabbaths” as “Sabbaths.” They concluded that it must mean the word “week.” They had no Biblical validation for this. If God had wanted to use another word to avoid the use of the word “Sabbaths” in connection with Sunday, He would have used another word. But God used the word “Sabbaths.” We wonder why?

http://209.10.202.163/graphical/literature/sunday.html


TrustAndObey said:
Here's an interesting view on "mia sabbaton"......

http://www.goodnewsaboutgod.com/resurrection/res1.htm

This person believes it means "one of the sabbaths" and is referring to the one of the sabbaths involved in Passover and wasn't Sunday at all.

??
 
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TrustAndObey

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I was hoping Oldsage would add his two cents on "mia sabbaton" since he is very well-versed in Greek and he's also very familiar with the feast day sabbaths. Oldsage, where are you bud?

Luke 23:56 - And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested the sabbath day according to the commandment.

We know Christ was in the grave on Saturday and that it was still called the Sabbath. The seventh-day Sabbath was a commandment.

There were sabbath days associated with the feasts, and we know Christ died on Passover. I have a feeling Matthew's use of mia sabbaton has everything to do with the fact that it was one of the sabbaths associated with the Feast of Unleavened Bread, which starts the day after Passover.

ra123 said:
The translators also correctly translated the Greek word “mia” as “first.”

Actually mia means "one".

And that site you quoted from is absolutely right that "day" is italicized, which means it was added by the translators.
 
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TrustAndObey

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ra123 said:
TrustandObey, I think you're talking about the passover lamb on thursday or when Jesus began to be under the wrath of God Matthew 26. Beginning to dawn toward the first of the sabbaths is not a passover on Sunday, it just ended.

ra123, there were sabbaths associated with the feasts. These were sabbaths beside the seventh day Sabbath of the Lord thy God. They were not part of God's Ten Commandments written on stone. (Lev. 23:37 & 38).

Leviticus 23:37 These are the feasts of the LORD, which ye shall proclaim to be holy convocations, to offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD, a burnt offering, and a meat offering, a sacrifice, and drink offerings, every thing upon his day: 38 Beside the sabbaths of the LORD, and beside your gifts, and beside all your vows, and beside all your freewill offerings, which ye give unto the LORD

Right after Passover was the Feast of Unleavened Bread. I'm getting rusty on the feast day sabbaths so that's why I was hoping oldsage would join the conversation again, he is the king of that stuff. Matthew could have been referring to "one of the sabbaths" associated with the Feast of Unleavened Bread.

I never said Passover was on that Sunday, so I think you may be the one that misunderstood actually.
 
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spirit1st

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THe sabbath was saturday .But it was under the law.If we are BORN OF GOD.We are not under the LAW,but under GRACE.Yet we are too be a living sacifice to GOD .Every day belongs to HIm.We are to count our selves dead and allow HIm.though the HOLY GHOST to live though us.We are to talk with the HOLY GHOST and be led by HIm and taught by HIm.There is now ,a NEW REST fior the NEW people .created in CHRIST JESUS!.
1Co 2:13 Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
2Co 5:17 Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.
Heb 4:9 There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God.
Heb 4:10 For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his.
Heb 4:11 Let us labor therefore to enter into that rest, lest any man fall after the same example of unbelief.
OH this is a VERY NICE REST.YOU SEE?WE DO NOTHING IN THIS REST.THE HOLY GHOST lives though us!And does everything perfect!Now this rest is spiritual,but BLESSES OUR WHOLE BEING!Few have entered in?But I have.I know its real,not just because I read it.But have enjoyed it GREATLY!I hope some here can enter in?
 
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tall73

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No, it doesn't. Nor are we, like the writers of your article, surprised to see the plural. The plural is used in other contexts when clearly it is speaking of a specific Sabbath day. Biblical usage across the various contexts is the only way to indicate meaning. And the usage does not favor your argument.

Let me demonstrate:



And again, did Acts 20:7 represent yet another new start to the Sabbath? If you read it as you are then you have no choice but to say so.

This is just the usage in the plural genitive. Moreover, you have the plural dative, Sabbasin, used also referring to specific Sabbath days in Luke 13:10; Mark 3:2; Mark 2:23; Mark 1:21; Matthew 12:1

So unless you have some reason to say that this is different, against all major translators and lexicons, and unless you are able to make sense of the other reference to the first day of the week in Acts 20:7, and in I Corinthians 16:2, then I think we are safe in saying it was a reference to the first day of the week, and not a commentary on the change of the Sabbath system.
 
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