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Which Day of the Week is the Sabbath?

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Debi1967

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I have read the whole chapter and I have also told you of whom it was speaking which was Soddom and Gommorrah .... considering that the ones that colonized those cities were indeed righteous to begin with and then starting observing practices that were abhorant to God .....Then how many people did he actually save from the city because how many were left.... and he told Lot and His wife not to look back and what did Lot's wife do? I am quite aquainted with the whole of it actually and the bond that he had with Abraham right before that if even tn Righteous remained he would not destroy the cities but there was not ten and therefore the cities were destroyed and he turned all of them blind before doing that were unrighteous before doing so.... Anything else you would like to know
 
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Debi1967

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PaleHorse said:
Again, please show me in the scriptures where the "Lord's Day" equates to Sunday.



Yes, the Sabbath was made for "man"; not just "Jew" or "Israelite" but ALL of mankind.

And again please show me where it equate to Saturday you cannot therefore we are stalemated are we not but I can prove conclusively that the meaning of " the Sabbath was made for man not man for the sabbath refers to the fact that the had a covenant with the Isrealites and it was His way of sealing that covenant with them.... They held the Sabbath and they were to circumcise .....
 
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Debi1967

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The word apparently is not in regards the definition but in regards the usuage as in it is a Primary or non-primary word .....

definition of primary word in linguistics study


  1. Linguistics.
  2. Having a word root or other linguistic element as a basis that cannot be further analyzed or broken down. Used of the derivation of a word or word element.
  3. Referring to present or future time. Used as a collective designation for various present and future verb tenses in Latin, Greek, and Sanskrit.
 
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Debi1967

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So therefore ALLLLLLLLLLLL of the transcriptionists have assessed this and have concluded that Peter in MODERN day english, would be definied as this in the Bible and by the way both Strong's and Thayer's are PROTESTANTS
 
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PaleHorse

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Okay, let's talk about the "Lord's Day".

“The Lord’s Day” is only found in one place in the Bible,
Revelation 1:10 - I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,

Notice that the text does not say what day of the week it is, as such we must look for other direct clues.
John was the writer of the book of Revelation, that’s why he is known as “John the Revelator”. John was a Jew, as such, he knew and followed the seventh-day Sabbath just as some of your post-apostolic sources state - that the Jews followed the seventh-day Sabbath. So, for him to use the phrase “The Lord’s Day” would mean Saturday (specifically Friday sundown to Saturday sundown). How do I know he wasn't referring the "the great and terrible day of the Lord" (Christ's second advent)? Because if we read the text carefully in Rev 1 we find that John start discussing what the vision is until verse 12.

Also, I recommend you read all of Revelation 1… not one time does it say what day the “Lord’s Day” is. To assume it was a Sunday is ridiculous when we look at the surrounding evidence.
 
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Debi1967

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PaleHorse said:
But the Apostles didn't change it - that's the point.
But they did and there is proof to that whereas where is yopur prrof that they did not? Because I have posted more than adequate proof that they did .... whether or not YOU choose to except the EMPIRICAL and OBJECTIVE proof is up to you .... that is your choice but it is my choice to sit here and say to myself logically they did because it was done and there is more than adequate proof both biblially and through the teachings of those that were in charge of handing down those teachings
 
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Debi1967

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John spoke of the Lord in high regard he could have only been exegetically been speaking of Christ ..... All we need do is look at all of John;s writing's to see this and who is it throughout the Apocolypse/Revelation that he talking about but Christ
 
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PaleHorse

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debiwebi said:
So therefore ALLLLLLLLLLLL of the transcriptionists have assessed this and have concluded that Peter in MODERN day english, would be definied as this in the Bible and by the way both Strong's and Thayer's are PROTESTANTS
Exactly, which is why I think Protestants that agree with this are being hypocritical.

The word apparently is not in regards the definition but in regards the usuage as in it is a Primary or non-primary word .....
I really couldn't care less about "usage" - I need unbiased definitions.

"Peter" or "rock" are not verbs - they are nouns.
 
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PaleHorse

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debiwebi said:
John spoke of the Lord in high regard he could have only been exegetically been speaking of Christ ..... All we need do is look at all of John;s writing's to see this and who is it throughout the Apocolypse/Revelation that he talking about but Christ
Yes, and Christ is lord of the Sabbath; so what is your point?
 
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Debi1967

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I have btw read all of the Apocolypse as written by the Apostle John which btw was the title given to it by John himself and not Revelation, it was thought by Luther later and some others when he was still a priest in the Church that the word apocolypse was too ominious therefore they changed the name to Revelation as in The revelation of John ....

My favorite verses of the Bible come from Revelation and used to be in my sig line for quite some time and they are from Revelation 21:3-4

Rev 21:3 And I heard a great voice from the throne, saying: Behold the tabernacle of God with men: and he will dwell with them. And they shall be his people: and God himself with them shall be their God.

Rev 21:4 And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes: and death shall be no more. Nor mourning, nor crying, nor sorrow shall be any more, for the former things are passed away.

I know these verses by heart .... as I do many others but I have kown these verses since I was a child by heart and have always been fascinated with the book of Revelation .... I often quote from it when most others shy away from using it because it is a hard book to understand because of it's prophetic nature and because of it's metaphorical nature as well .... The symbolisms used in Revelation often leave people confused ... so therefore in order to properly understand the meanings of things in placement means that in depth study must be done....
 
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Debi1967

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PaleHorse said:
Yes, and Christ is lord of the Sabbath; so what is your point?
That is my point .... so therefore if Christ is the Lord of the Sabbath then why are you not celebrating it on Sunday the Lord's Day ... the Day of the Risen Lord?
 
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Debi1967

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PaleHorse said:
Exactly, which is why I think Protestants that agree with this are being hypocritical.


I really couldn't care less about "usage" - I need unbiased definitions.
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"Peter" or "rock" are not verbs - they are nouns.
Umm that was simply from a dictionary looked up on google the first one that came up thank you so therefore there was no bias in it ....

Now you are posing red herring arguments

I gave the whoile of the defintion in linguistics for you but really only the first defintion applies and so therefore you would be right but you are not going after the right argument with me go back to the first defintion and see if you can find fault with that one definition #2 actually
 
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prodromos

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PaleHorse said:
Again, please show me in the scriptures where the "Lord's Day" equates to Sunday.
I know it isn't scripture but it is from one of the disciples of John the Evangelist, from the end of the 1st century or the beginning of the 2nd.
Ignatius - Letter to the Magnesians said:
And after the observance of the Sabbath, let every friend of Christ keep the Lord's Day as a festival, the resurrection-day, the queen and chief of all the days [of the week]
 
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Cliff2

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prodromos said:
I know it isn't scripture but it is from one of the disciples of John the Evangelist, from the end of the 1st century or the beginning of the 2nd.

Who do you claim that "John the Evabgelist" is?

Are you saying he is John who was the disciple and the writer of Revelation and the gospel of John or is it another John?
 
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PaleHorse

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debiwebi said:
That is my point .... so therefore if Christ is the Lord of the Sabbath then why are you not celebrating it on Sunday the Lord's Day ... the Day of the Risen Lord?
Because the Bible doesn't instruct us to observe Christ's resurrection on any day of the week.

In fact, how did Christ tell us to observe His death and ressurection? Baptism commemorates the burial and resurrection of Jesus. (Romans 6:3-5) I'm not about to add to Christ's clear teaching.

How did Christ tell us to remember Him? Communion.
Luke 22:19 - And he took bread, and gave thanks, and brake it, and gave unto them, saying, This is my body which is given for you: this do in remembrance of me.
1 Corinthians 11:24 - And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me.
1 Corinthians 11:25 - After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, this cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.

You'll notice that not once did Christ say to "change My holy day".
 
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PaleHorse

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prodromos said:
I know it isn't scripture but it is from one of the disciples of John the Evangelist, from the end of the 1st century or the beginning of the 2nd.
I appreciate you posting this, truly, but as has been duly noted I am a Protestant, as such I do not accept post-apostolic writings as a basis for doctrine. I know that many faiths do, and that is their perogative, but I simply do not.
 
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PaleHorse

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debiwebi said:
Umm that was simply from a dictionary looked up on google the first one that came up thank you so therefore there was no bias in it ....
Sorry, I didn't mean to sound as if I thought the definition in your post was biased - I'm just saying that for purposes of textual criticism I would prefer to stick with the hard and fast definitions of the words rather than interpretations as much as possible.

For instance, the word sabbatismos only refers to "seventh-day Sabbath observance" in 100% of all ancient Greek literature found to date. Yet for some reason the Thayer's and Strong's Lexicons have seen fit to define it in this manner:


1) a keeping sabbath

2) the blessed rest from toils and troubles looked for in the age to come by the true worshippers of God and true Christians
My question is how do they arrive at definition #2? In the entire Bible there is only one instance of sabbatismos yet they give two definitions? This is what I mean when I say I'd rather have solid definitions rather than interpretations.
 
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