Ed1wolf
Well-Known Member
- Dec 26, 2002
- 2,928
- 178
- Country
- United States
- Faith
- Presbyterian
- Marital Status
- Single
The best scholars use the grammatico-historical hermeneutic which is how you understand any document. Using that method you can show the most likely correct interpretation.Ed1Wolf,
Who gets to decide which interpretation of the Bible is correct? Is killing in war acceptable? It depends on which Christian you ask. Is alcohol, marijuana, cussing, gambling, gay sex, or abortion acceptable? Again, depends who you ask.
Most churches that believe in the infallible authority of the bible agree on the essentials.dm: If you say your interpretation is right, and all who disagree are wrong, how is that not subjective?
Very few orthodox Christians were involved. Most of Germany had long ago rejected the infallible authority of Bible. Liberal theology had become the majority view in Germany long before Hitler came to power. It came to dominate churches especially the Lutheran church by the late 19th century. After rejecting Gods objective moral law-word, Germany became open to accepting someone like Hitler and the Nazi party due to their subjective and relativistic moral standards.dm: If God condemns the Holocaust, why did Christians play the role they did in the rise of Nazi Germany? See The Great Scandal: Christianity's Role in the Rise of the Nazis (churchandstate.org.uk)
There is evidence that they had been celebrating what they did for 400 years and they knew exactly what they did. There is what is called collective guilt for societies. God was very gracious and merciful, He gave them 400 years to repent but they did not. The entire society knew what they were doing. The children were taken to prevent being raised into evil adults, so by taking them prior to the age of accountability they went to heaven rather than hell if they had been raised to adulthood.dm: Numbers 31
How can this be capital punishment? The alleged event occurred 400 years earlier. I Samuel 15:2 says, "Thus saith the LORD of hosts, I remember that which Amalek did to Israel, how he laid wait for him in the way, when he came up from Egypt." I doubt if that accusation is based on an event that actually happened. The base Exodus account of millions of Jews wandering Sinai clearly did not happen. So most likely the priests made this up. But even if it really happened, and the Amalekites had a war with Israel 400 years earlier, how can their descendants 400 years later deserve "Capital Punishment" for that? And if you think killing in war is acceptable, how can the Amalekite soldiers be condemned for doing what their commanders commanded? And even if the adults 400 years later deserved punishment for those soldiers' acts of obeying their commanders, how can the babies 400 years later deserve to be killed for this? See Exodus 17:8-16 and 1 Samuel 15:1-9.
They had not been involved in the sin at Baal-peor and they became wives of Hebrew warriors and thereby joined a much superior society where women were treated much better.dm: And if that is not enough, look at Numbers 31, and the reported slaughter of the Midianites. In that slaughter they reportedly obeyed the command to kill all including the babies, but exempted the virgins, which they captured. Can you figure out why they kept only the virgins? Numbers 31:4 tells us, "and the persons were sixteen thousand; of which the LORD'S tribute was thirty and two persons." Pray tell me, what did the Lord need thirty two captive virgins for?
Upvote
0