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where did sin come from

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Easystreet

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I hold the position that God did not create Sin.

Everything God created was Good.

Free will is good.

Creatures that were and are created with free will brought sin in to existence.

So in a sense the creation of Angels and Man with free will to rebel allowed for the potential to SIN.

Sin is not created per say, but brought about by rebellion.

Keeping it simple, sin is a by product of free moral agents rebellion against its maker.

Now, hell and the lake of fire are created.

God Bless

Love Always Finds A Way

 
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Alenci

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If an omniscient being creates other beings with "free will" in the knowledge that they will abuse their free will by falling into sin (for wouldn't denying this knowledge be a contradiction of God's omniscience), is that not the same as creating sin? It would be like shipping a product that is known to be defective.

This seems to create a situation of two-tiered responsibility; on the one level, man made a "choice" to sin; yet on the other, God created man in the knowledge that he would sin. If you adhere to the "God did not create sin" view, how do you absolve God of this blame? Is there Scriptural evidence to refute the claim that God created sin?

And if you argue that sin has always existed because it is the necessary opposite of God - the absence of obedience - would it not limit both God's omnipotence and omnipresence to suggest that something exists outside of God, eternally, that was not created by him? How could this not put sin on an equal footing?

The options would appear to be to believe:
1) that goodness and sin are necessary opposites - that the existance of one can only be defined by the presence of the other
2) that perfect goodness spawned perfect evil

In my mind, the first option contradicts Scripture and also seems to suggest that there is some greater fundamental principle of reality that eclipses God. The second option contradicts logic.



As regards this passage...

Romans 5:12-13 said:
12Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned— 13for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law.

Sin entered the world through one man... sin already existed but did not enter the world until Adam and Eve fell to Satan's temptation. So I cannot believe this passage can tell us anything about the origin of sin, except in this world alone; yet that is already outlined in Genesis.
 
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Sin isn't a creation. It is the opposite of YHWH's will. And since YHWH has existed eternally, whatever is opposite of YHWH has existed eternally. Look at this analogy, if light existed forever, darkness would exist forever as well. Darkness is the lack of light, so where ever the light was not, the darkness was. It wasn't a creation, since light has been around forever. Same with God and sin. Sin is opposite of God. God has been forever, so has sin.
 
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Alenci

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Then answer me this, in light of the passage I quoted, Romans 5:12-13:

If sin existed eternally, why was it not present in the world before the fall? Perhaps I did not understand your argument.

You say that God did not create sin, yet in post 4 you stated that God created Satan with free will, and Satan rebelled. This is where my argument comes in: it would seem that one must either deny the omniscience of God, or attribute the creation of sin to him. (And for the record, neither option makes me very comfortable.)
 
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