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When do we observe Moses' law?

Achichem

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Apologist said:
Why do you not complete the spelling when you write the word, "G-od" in your sentences? I find that interesting.
Many Torah observers do this to stop from using G-d name inappropriately, so not to challenge G-d s Holy law of not using His name in vain, as well it sanctify the name more when only used in solid discussion like prayer or bible reading .
However, I do not feel it does anything to protect me from that law, I do like the logic of it, and so I decided to adopt it in to writings on subjective topics, however after awhile it just stuck.
That is the question, indeed.
I just mean to say:first, I believe the law was given for Abraham, not Jacob…Second, I also believe in modern Israel (lost ten tribes)… however, It doesn’t even matter, cause I disagree that the law was just for the Israelites anyway! But as I said, no use in arguing this debating…If you have your eyes on following christ, you should follow the law anyway, so I mean what is there to even debate over.
We no longer observe the law. Christ fulfilled the law for us. We now seek Him instead of the law. Paradoxically, His love, mercy, and forgiveness begins to replace the sin inside of us and makes us capable of obeying the law. He does it for us.
If that helps you follow G-d, all the power to you…but please do not say Paul and his letter support such things as “We no longer observe the law”, however you certainly can say the second one “We now seek Him instead of the law”(that is without the “now”),

Peace my Brothers In Christ,
Datsar
 
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Carico

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Paul specifically says that the law now is for our BENEFIT, rather than a requirement to enter the kingdom of heaven. It shows us when we are sinning. He said we are now dead to the law because the body of Christ covers us. We cannot obey the law which is why we need the forgiveness from God in the first place. It is Christ who obeys the law for us. So instead of "trying" to obey the law by our own effort, we simply confess when we haven't obeyed the law and ask for His forgiveness. Once we receive His forgiveness, it is THAT love, and mercy which replaces our desire to sin and produces the fruits of the spirit. Our behavior then comes from our hearts rather than an act of human will.
 
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Achichem

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Carico said:
Paul specifically says that the law now is for our BENEFIT, rather than a requirement to enter the kingdom of heaven. It shows us when we are sinning. He said we are now dead to the law because the body of Christ covers us. We cannot obey the law which is why we need the forgiveness from God in the first place. It is Christ who obeys the law for us. So instead of "trying" to obey the law by our own effort, we simply confess when we haven't obeyed the law and ask for His forgiveness. Once we receive His forgiveness, it is THAT love, and mercy which replaces our desire to sin and produces the fruits of the spirit. Our behavior then comes from our hearts rather than an act of human will.
Well, if that is all you ment by it I am sorry, I took you the wrong way...

Shalom,
DaTsar

'confess(repent actually mean turn away from :) )
 
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Apologist

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DaTsar said:
Many Torah observers do this to stop from using G-d name inappropriately, so not to challenge G-d s Holy law of not using His name in vain, as well it sanctify the name more when only used in solid discussion like prayer or bible reading .
However, I do not feel it does anything to protect me from that law, I do like the logic of it, and so I decided to adopt it in to writings on subjective topics, however after awhile it just stuck.
I understand that, but His name is YHWH in the Hebrew, so saying, "God" in English in no way violates the unspeakable tetragrammaton of the OT.
That was my point.

Soli Deo Gloria
 
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Achichem

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Apologist said:
I understand that, but His name is YHWH in the Hebrew, so saying, "God" in English in no way violates the unspeakable tetragrammaton of the OT.
That was my point.

Soli Deo Gloria
We use G-d as a calling, hence it is a name...
second,"god" is no longer a subjective term, we know there is only "one god".

But on the main ponit, I wonder, what do you understand Matt. 5:17 to say?
 
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