When did Christ descend from heaven then ascend back to heaven before His crucifiction?

[BNR32FAN]

“No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.”
‭‭John‬ ‭3:13‬ ‭NASB‬‬

When did this take place?

 

[Not David]

“No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.”
‭‭John‬ ‭3:13‬ ‭NASB‬‬

When did this take place?

It is talking about He coming from Heaven when He was conceived.

 

[BNR32FAN]

It is talking about He coming from Heaven when He was conceived.

But He said no one has ascended to heaven, but (except) He who has descended. I’m just curious if the scriptures give an actual reference to Him descending before His incarnation? I think this statement implies that Jesus descended and ascended before His incarnation.

 

[Not David]

But He said no one has ascended to heaven, but (except) He who has descended. I’m just curious if the scriptures give an actual reference to Him descending before His incarnation? I think this statement implies that Jesus descended and ascended before His incarnation.

I think you are overthinking it.

 

[Albion]

But He said no one has ascended to heaven, but (except) He who has descended. I’m just curious if the scriptures give an actual reference to Him descending before His incarnation? I think this statement implies that Jesus descended and ascended before His incarnation.

IMO, that's just a complete misreading of the verse.

 

[Neogaia777]

“No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.”
‭‭John‬ ‭3:13‬ ‭NASB‬‬

When did this take place?

Could be talking a gradual descent from the beginning of time or creation when or after creations was made to when and where he became man, or it could be talking about when he was conceived, or it could even be talking about descending into hell for three days and three nights, then coming back up and then ascending (back up into heaven afterward) again, don't know, but there are all kinds of theories...?

God Bless!

 

[Phil W]

“No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.”
‭‭John‬ ‭3:13‬ ‭NASB‬‬

When did this take place?

Bethlehem, at His birth from a woman.

 

[BNR32FAN]

Bethlehem, at His birth from a woman.

That explains that He descended but not that He has already ascended previously. The indication I see here is that He had descended and ascended back to heaven before His incarnation.

 

[renniks]

That explains that He descended but not that He has already ascended previously. The indication I see here is that He had descended and ascended back to heaven before His incarnation.

There is some indication that Jesus may have visited Earth in human form in the old testament.

 

[Carl Emerson]

“No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.”
‭‭John‬ ‭3:13‬ ‭NASB‬‬

When did this take place?

Descended at birth, ascended some time after resurrection.

See and compare...

Luke 24:39 Touch me and see; a ghost does not have flesh and bones, as you see I have.

With

John 20:17 "Do not touch me, for I have not yet ascended to my Father.

Some time between, prophecy in Daniel 7:13 fulfilled.

13 In my vision in the night I continued to watch: And I saw One like a Son of Man coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into His presence. 14 And He was given dominion, glory, and kingship, that the people of every nation and language should serve Him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and His kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.…

 

[eleos1954]

“No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.”
‭‭John‬ ‭3:13‬ ‭NASB‬‬

When did this take place?

Need to keep the verse in context.

In verses John 10-12, especially, we see that Jesus is talking about His authority and the validity of His teaching. Jesus tells Nicodemus that He has been teaching what He knew firsthand: “We speak of what we know, and we testify to what we have seen” (verse 11).

Then, in verse 13 Jesus explains why He is uniquely qualified to teach of the kingdom of God—namely, because He alone came down from heaven and possesses the knowledge to teach people about heaven. Jesus alone has seen the Father, and He alone is qualified to declare God and make Him known (John 1:18).

We know there have been others that were taken to heaven (ie Enoch, Moses and Elijah) ... if a human is taken to heaven .... then they can't come back to earth from there because they have been changed.

1Co 15:47 The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven.
48 As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly.
49 And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.
50 Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.
51 ¶ Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed,

These verses explain it for you....

mankind is from earth dust, Jesus was the only man born of earth dust, yet also from heaven....

Those that go to heaven, are changed into a different form, the form of heaven....

 

[BNR32FAN]

There is some indication that Jesus may have visited Earth in human form in the old testament.

Yes I agree. Genesis 18:1, Exodus 6:2-3 could be references. This could also be a reference to Jacob’s ladder.

 

[Albion]

Yes I agree. Genesis 18:1, Exodus 6:2-3 could be references. This could also be a reference to Jacob’s ladder.

Those verses are referring to THE FATHER.

 

[BNR32FAN]

Need to keep the verse in context.

In verses John 10-12, especially, we see that Jesus is talking about His authority and the validity of His teaching. Jesus tells Nicodemus that He has been teaching what He knew firsthand: “We speak of what we know, and we testify to what we have seen” (verse 11).

Then, in verse 13 Jesus explains why He is uniquely qualified to teach of the kingdom of God—namely, because He alone came down from heaven and possesses the knowledge to teach people about heaven. Jesus alone has seen the Father, and He alone is qualified to declare God and make Him known (John 1:18).

We know there have been others that were taken to heaven (ie Enoch, Moses and Elijah) ... if a human is taken to heaven .... then they can't come back to earth from there because they have been changed.

1Co 15:47 The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven.
48 As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly.
49 And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.
50 Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.
51 ¶ Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed,

These verses explain it for you....

mankind is from earth dust, Jesus was the only man born of earth dust, yet also from heaven....

Those that go to heaven, are changed into a different form, the form of heaven....

Moses and Elijah appeared before Jesus and the apostles. I agree that they were in a different form.

 

[BNR32FAN]

Descended at birth, ascended some time after resurrection.

See and compare...

Luke 24:39 Touch me and see; a ghost does not have flesh and bones, as you see I have.

With

John 20:17 "Do not touch me, for I have not yet ascended to my Father.

Some time between, prophecy in Daniel 7:13 fulfilled.

13 In my vision in the night I continued to watch: And I saw One like a Son of Man coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into His presence. 14 And He was given dominion, glory, and kingship, that the people of every nation and language should serve Him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and His kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.…

But He says no one has ascended except the one who has descended. This means that He has ascended before His incarnation which happened before His resurrection. I don’t think it is inconceivable that Jesus had not descended before His incarnation.

 

[renniks]

Yes I agree. Genesis 18:1, Exodus 6:2-3 could be references. This could also be a reference to Jacob’s ladder.

I was thinking of Melchizedek. Some think he was the pre incarnate Jesus.

 

[eleos1954]

Moses and Elijah appeared before Jesus and the apostles. I agree that they were in a different form.

Yes ... and notice Jesus appeared with them in heaven ... and then .... He (Jesus) returned to earth in His earthly form.

An example of:

Jesus ascending into heaven and descending from heaven. He's the only one that can do that.

 

[Albion]

I was thinking of Melchizedek. Some think he was the pre incarnate Jesus.

Who would they be?

 

[BNR32FAN]

Those verses are referring to THE FATHER.

“Now the LORD appeared to him by the oaks of Mamre, while he was sitting at the tent door in the heat of the day.”
‭‭Genesis‬ ‭18:1‬ ‭NASB‬‬

“God spoke further to Moses and said to him, "I am the LORD; and I appeared to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, as God Almighty, but by My name, LORD, I did not make Myself known to them.”
‭‭Exodus‬ ‭6:2-3‬ ‭NASB‬‬

That is not for certain, these very well could be referring to Jesus. I don’t think that Jesus who played a major role in creation sat on the sidelines for 4000 years doing nothing. I believe even then He was doing His Father’s will.

 

[BNR32FAN]

I was thinking of Melchizedek. Some think he was the pre incarnate Jesus.

That’s interesting I’ll have to look into that, thanks.