- Oct 28, 2006
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As "we've defined it"? Uh...I don't think we've reached a definitive definition just yet on this.Not at all. Frankly, I think we can agree, that the Bible is pretty clear in it's assertion that the Canaanites are evil. I'm assuming that whether there is a God or not, the Bible claims that God Himself says that racism, as we've defined it, is Godly.
I'm seeing a disparity here. On the one hand, you asserting that God has applied a racist evaluation of the Canaanites, but then you seem to be connecting God's judgment with their being evil with their race. Where exactly is this happening in the Biblical texts? Because as I follow the narrative from Genesis to Joshua, I'm not seeing that 1) God is racist, or 2) that evil is attributed to race. As far as I can tell, this is a conceptual connection that you alone are making and doesn't bear out in the overall contexts of the biblical narrative.That God Himself uses race to determine the attributes of human beings. Canaanites, Hittites are all evil and deserve to die because of it.
What does Hitler have to do with God's denunciation of the Canaanites? That seems to me to be a Red-herring or a form of anachronism.So why is it wrong to assume that every member of a race share the same attributes? What's wrong with saying Jews are deceitful, or Africans are savages, and whites are power-hungry? The Bible tells us that Canaanites are evil and every single one of them deserved to die. Why was Hitler wrong to say that Jews were evil and every single one of them deserved to die?
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