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BPPLEE

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eleos1954

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KJV is a great version of the bible. I want to read the Wycliffe bible or The Tyndale Bible.

You can go here and compare many translations at a glance ... and also look up same using the greek and hebrew lexicons .... very useful and informative.

www.biblhub.com
 
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BPPLEE

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You can go here and compare many translations at a glance ... and also look up same using the greek and hebrew lexicons .... very useful and informative.

www.biblhub.com
Blue Letter Bible is another good one.
 
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pescador

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stacey7

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You can go here and compare many translations at a glance ... and also look up same using the greek and hebrew lexicons .... very useful and informative.

www.biblhub.com
the new translation speaks right to me but some I find leave out verses at the end of the chapters.
 
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ViaCrucis

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KJV is a great version of the bible. I want to read the Wycliffe bible or The Tyndale Bible.

A majority of Tyndale's translation is actually in the KJV itself. The KJV, even according to its own translators, weren't interested in making a brand new translation but rather improving upon the work of earlier translators. One of the purposes of the KJV was to produce a Bible that improved upon the Bishop's Bible (the official Bible of the Church of England prior to 1611) and the Geneva Bible (the translation preferred by the Puritans) for a common Bible. The CoE adopted it, after all it was authorized by the British Crown, though Puritans didn't like it and continued to use the Geneva.

One can find updated versions of Wycliffe's Bible, though Wycliffe didn't use Hebrew and Greek sources, but rather translated from the Latin of the Vulgate, and his English is even more archaic than that of Tyndale or the KJV.

Wycliffe Bible preserved digitally here: John Wycliffe's Translation

These are certainly interesting, from an historical perspective. But I wouldn't recommend any of these for serious Bible study, including the KJV. A good study Bible should be easy to read and also a faithful translation that relies on the best manuscript materials we have available. Where the KJV has its shortcomings is that its language is archaic and thus can potentially be misleading to a casual reader, and it relied extensively on only the manuscript and critical texts available at the time, at the time the oldest Hebrew text available was the Masoretic Text from the 10th century, and likewise most of the Greek texts were Byzantine texts no earlier than the 10th-11th centuries. That doesn't make the KJV bad, only that the KJV isn't a great study Bible. The KJV is absolutely beautiful, and I think the beauty of the prose of the text means it deserves the high praise it has received throughout the centuries.

But as it pertains to a good, solid study Bible, where one can really digest the meat of God's word, any translation that is easy to read and also is faithful to the source material is fantastic.

I prefer the ESV most of the time, but the NKJV, NASB, and NRSV are also good translations for this purpose.

But, in the end, the saying is true: the best Bible translation is the one you read, meaning, as long as you have your nose in the Scriptures, that's what matters.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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pescador

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the new translation speaks right to me but some I find leave out verses at the end of the chapters.

For example? The additional words of Romans 8:1 and the "long ending" of Mark's gospel have very weak support for their authenticity.
 
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The Liturgist

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For example? The additional words of Romans 8:1 and the "long ending" of Mark's gospel have very weak support for their authenticity.

Actually its misleading to characterize it as “very weak.” There is a distinct possibility that even the Comma Johanneum is authentic. As regards the Longer Ending of Mark, some manuscripts have it and some do not. It is entirely possible that some scribes of the early church, acting on instructions from their bishop, dropped the Longer Ending of Mark in order to avoid their laity getting injured by deliberately handling snakes and stomping on scorpions, in the manner of the modern day Snake Handling Pentecostals of the Appalachians.
 
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The Liturgist

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Also biblegateway.com.

BibleGateway is good. I personally prefer BibleHub because it has more translations available, however, BibleGateway appears easier to use.
 
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BPPLEE

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See post #17
Here are the notes from the NET
tc The Gospel of Mark ends at this point in some witnesses (א B sy sa arm geomss Eus Eus Hier), including two of the most respected mss (א B). This is known as the “short ending.” The following “intermediate” ending is found in some mss: “They reported briefly to those around Peter all that they had been commanded. After these things Jesus himself sent out through them, from the east to the west, the holy and imperishable preaching of eternal salvation. Amen.” This intermediate ending is usually included with the longer ending (L Ψ 083 099 579 pc); k, however, ends at this point. Most mss include the “long ending” (vv. 9-20) immediately after v. 8 (A C D W [which has unique material between vv. 14 and 15] Θ ƒ 33 M lat sy bo); however, Eusebius (and presumably Jerome) knew of almost no Greek mss that had this ending. Several mss have marginal comments noting that earlier Greek mss lacked the verses. Internal evidence strongly suggests the secondary nature of both the intermediate and the long endings. Their vocabulary, syntax, and style are decidedly non-Markan (for further details, see TCGNT 102-6). All of this evidence indicates that as time went on scribes added the longer ending, either for the richness of its material or because of the abruptness of the ending at v. 8. (Indeed, the strange variety of dissimilar endings attests to the likelihood that early scribes had a copy of Mark that ended at v. 8, and they filled out the text with what seemed to be an appropriate conclusion. All of the witnesses for alternative endings to vv. 9-20 thus indirectly confirm the Gospel as ending at v. 8.) Because of such problems regarding the authenticity of these alternative endings, 16:8 is usually regarded today as the last verse of the Gospel of Mark. There are three possible explanations for Mark ending at 16:8: (1) The author intentionally ended the Gospel here in an open-ended fashion; (2) the Gospel was never finished; or (3) the last leaf of the ms was lost prior to copying. This first explanation is the most likely due to several factors, including (a) the probability that the Gospel was originally written on a scroll rather than a codex (only on a codex would the last leaf get lost prior to copying); (b) the unlikelihood of the ms not being completed; and (c) the literary power of ending the Gospel so abruptly that the readers are now drawn into the story itself. E. Best aptly states, “It is in keeping with other parts of his Gospel that Mark should not give an explicit account of a conclusion where this is already well known to his readers” (Mark, 73; note also his discussion of the ending of this Gospel on 132 and elsewhere). The readers must now ask themselves, “What will I do with Jesus? If I do not accept him in his suffering, I will not see him in his glory.” For further discussion and viewpoints, see Perspectives on the Ending of Mark: Four Views, ed. D. A. Black (Nashville: B&H Academic, 2008); Nicholas P. Lunn, The Original Ending of Mark: A New Case for the Authenticity of Mark 16:9-20 (London: Pickwick, 2014); Gregory P. Sapaugh, “An Appraisal of the Intrinsic Probability of the Longer Endings of the Gospel of Mark” (Ph.D. diss., Dallas Theological Seminary, 2012).sn Double brackets have been placed around this passage to indicate that most likely it was not part of the original text of the Gospel of Mark. In spite of this, the passage has an important role in the history of the transmission of the text, so it has been included in the translation.
 
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BPPLEE

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What is the Comma Johanneum (1 John 5:7-8)? | GotQuestions.org. I prefer the MT over the TR. Thanks for your post
tc Before τὸ πνεῦμα καὶ τὸ ὕδωρ καὶ τὸ αἷμα (to pneuma kai to hudōr kai to haima, “the Spirit and the water and the blood”) at the beginning of v. 8, the Textus Receptus (TR) reads ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ, ὁ πατήρ, ὁ λόγος, καὶ τὸ ἅγιον πνεῦμα, καὶ οὗτοι οἱ τρεῖς ἕν εἰσι. 5:8 καὶ τρεῖς εἰσιν οἱ μαρτυροῦντες ἐν τῇ γῇ (“in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. 5:8 And there are three that testify on earth”). This reading, the infamous Comma Johanneum, has been known in the English-speaking world through the King James translation. However, the evidence—both external and internal—is decidedly against its authenticity. For a detailed discussion, see TCGNT 647-49. Our discussion will briefly address the external evidence. This longer reading is found only in ten late mss, four of which have the words in a marginal note. These mss range in date from the 10th century (221) to the 18th (2318). They include the following (with dates in parentheses) 221 (X), 177 (XI), 88 (XII), 429 (XIV), 629 (XIV), 636 (XV), 61 (ca.1520), 918 (XVI), 2473 (1634), and 2318 (XVIII). There are minor variations among these codices. The earliest ms, codex 221, includes the reading in a marginal note, added sometime after the original composition. The oldest ms with the Comma in its text is from the 14th century (629), but the wording here departs from all the other mss in several places. The next oldest mss on behalf of the Comma, 177 (11th century), 88 (12th), 429 (14th), and 636 (15th), also have the reading only as a marginal note (v.l.). Codex 177’s Comma is in a marginal note that must be dated after 1551, the year of the first Greek New Testament with verse numbers added. The remaining mss are from the 16th to 18th centuries. Thus, there is no sure evidence of this reading in any Greek ms until the 14th century (629), and that ms deviates from all others in its wording; the wording that matches what is found in the TR was apparently composed after Erasmus’ Greek NT was published in 1516. Indeed, the Comma appears in no Greek witness of any kind (either ms, patristic, or Greek translation of some other version) until a.d. 1215 (in a Greek translation of the Acts of the Lateran Council, a work originally written in Latin). This is all the more significant since many a Greek Father would have loved such a reading, for it so succinctly affirms the doctrine of the Trinity. The reading seems to have arisen in a fourth century Latin homily in which the text was allegorized to refer to members of the Trinity. From there, it made its way into copies of the Latin Vulgate, the text used by the Roman Catholic Church. The Trinitarian formula (the Comma Johanneum) found a place in the third edition of Erasmus’ Greek NT (1522) because of pressure from the Catholic Church. After his first edition appeared, there arose such a furor over the absence of the Comma that Erasmus needed to defend himself. He argued that he did not put in the Comma because he found no Greek mss that included it. Once one was produced (codex 61, written in ca. 1520), Erasmus apparently felt obliged to include the reading. He became aware of this ms sometime between May of 1520 and September of 1521. In his annotations to his third edition he does not protest the rendering now in his text, as though it were made to order, but he does defend himself from the charge of indolence, noting that he had taken care to find whatever mss he could for the production of his text. In the final analysis, Erasmus probably altered the text because of politico-theologico-economic concerns: He did not want his reputation ruined, nor his Novum Instrumentum to go unsold. Modern advocates of the TR and KJV generally argue for the inclusion of the Comma Johanneum on the basis of heretical motivation by scribes who did not include it. But these same scribes elsewhere include thoroughly orthodox readings—even in places where the TR/Byzantine mss lack them. Further, these advocates argue theologically from the position of divine preservation: Since this verse is in the TR, it must be original. (Of course, this approach is circular, presupposing as it does that the TR = the original text.) In reality, the issue is history, not heresy: How can one argue that the Comma Johanneum goes back to the original text yet does not appear until the 14th century in any Greek mss (and in a form significantly different from what is printed in the TR; the wording of the TR is not found in any Greek mss until the 16th century)? Such a stance does not do justice to the gospel: Faith must be rooted in history. Significantly, the German translation of Luther was based on Erasmus’ second edition (1519) and lacked the Comma. But the KJV translators, basing their work principally on Theodore Beza’s 10th edition of the Greek NT (1598), a work which itself was fundamentally based on Erasmus’ third and later editions (and Stephanus’ editions), popularized the Comma for the English-speaking world. Thus, the Comma Johanneum has been a battleground for English-speaking Christians more than for others. For a recent discussion of the Comma Johanneum, see Rodrigo Galiza and John W. Reeve, “The Johannine Comma (1 John 5:7–8): The Status of Its Textual History and Theological Usage in English, Greek, and Latin,” AUSS 56 (2018) 63–89.
 
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BPPLEE

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Notes from the NET
sn 1 Cor 7:36-38. There are two common approaches to understanding the situation addressed in these verses. One view involves a father or male guardian deciding whether to give his daughter or female ward in marriage (cf. NASB, NIV margin). The evidence for this view is: (1) the phrase in v. 37 (Grk) “to keep his own virgin” fits this view well (“keep his own virgin [in his household]” rather than give her in marriage), but it does not fit the second view (there is little warrant for adding “her” in the way the second view translates it: “to keep her as a virgin”). (2) The verb used twice in v. 38 (γαμίζω, gamizō) normally means “to give in marriage” not “to get married.” The latter is usually expressed by γαμέω (gameō), as in v. 36b. (3) The father deciding what is best regarding his daughter’s marriage reflects the more likely cultural situation in ancient Corinth, though it does not fit modern Western customs. While Paul gives his advice in such a situation, he does not command that marriages be arranged in this way universally. If this view is taken, the translation will read as follows: “7:36 If anyone thinks he is acting inappropriately toward his unmarried daughter, if she is past the bloom of youth and it seems necessary, he should do what he wishes; he does not sin. Let them marry. 7:37 But the man who is firm in his commitment, and is under no necessity but has control over his will, and has decided in his own mind to keep his daughter unmarried, does well. 7:38 So then the one who gives his daughter in marriage does well, but the one who does not give her does better.” The other view is taken by NRSV, NIV text, NJB, REB: a single man deciding whether to marry the woman to whom he is engaged. The evidence for this view is: (1) it seems odd to use the word “virgin” (vv. 36, 37, 38) if “daughter” or “ward” is intended. (2) The other view requires some difficult shifting of subjects in v. 36, whereas this view manages a more consistent subject for the various verbs used. (3) The phrases in these verses are used consistently elsewhere in this chapter to describe considerations appropriate to the engaged couple themselves (cf. vv. 9, 28, 39). It seems odd not to change the phrasing in speaking about a father or guardian. If this second view is taken, the translation will read as follows: “7:36 If anyone thinks he is acting inappropriately toward his fiancée, if his passions are too strong and it seems necessary, he should do what he wishes; he does not sin. Let them marry. 7:37 But the man who is firm in his commitment, and is under no necessity but has control over his will, and has decided in his own mind to keep her as his fiancée, does well. 7:38 So then, the one who marries his fiancée does well, but the one who does not marry her does better.”
 
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BPPLEE

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BibleGateway is good. I personally prefer BibleHub because it has more translations available, however, BibleGateway appears easier to use.
Can you explain Proverbs 18:1? It seems to say one thing in the KJV and the opposite in almost all other versions including the NKJV. Maybe I’m reading the KJV wrong
 
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Erose

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Here is my issue with modern Bibles, and yes that includes Catholic ones: They are all hodge podged together. What I mean by this is you have a a scholar or group of scholars setting in a room somewhere who are taking multiple manuscripts and/or biblical text types (or I would prefer traditions) and when there is a difference in the reading, they make an executive decision on which one to go with. Sure they may set up criteria to follow, but in not every situation that criteria will work, and if it did or didn't we don't know because no one really knows what the original rendering was!

Who gave scholars the authority to determine what is and is not in the Bible, and which rendering is the right one and which one is not?

In my opinion, what should be done when it comes to the Bible, is translate a manuscript, biblical traditional text and/or text type; and in either your title or on the cover say: This Bible is translated from the Critical Text or Majority or Received or etc.

This way you know what you are getting with a Bible and you are not getting a Bible where in some potentially important passages may be using one text type over another because that one jives better with my theology over that one.

I own modern Bibles, both Protestant and Catholic ones, and even a Jewish one; but I no longer read them. Rather I prefer to follow what I call the Biblical Traditional Texts and read them, primarily the Vulgate (being Catholic), but also the Septuagint and the Masoretic Texts for the OT for example.
 
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BPPLEE

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You may like the NET Bible full notes edition
 
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Erose

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You may like the NET Bible full notes edition
No I think not. Still a hodgepodge Bible, except this one lets you see how they got what they got.

Don't get me wrong I agree with CryptoLutheran that the best bible is the one you are reading, and this recommendation is for the wide majority of Christians. But if you are really wanting to study Scripture IMO you don't really want a gatekeeper telling you what passages should be taken from one source and not from another.

This IMO was a terrible move by Catholic Bible translators to follow Protestants into this swamp. Stick with what the Church has been using for 1000 years and use that as your source. But this is a Catholic issue and not a Protestant one.
 
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BPPLEE

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Erose

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Didn't realize that at least some Baptist scholars have great respect for the Vulgate. Thank you.
 
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BPPLEE

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