- Jun 6, 2002
- 20,704
- 4,441
- Country
- United States
- Gender
- Male
- Faith
- Christian
- Marital Status
- Married
- Politics
- US-Others
Joh 19:30
30 When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.
When Jesus spoke those powerful words on the cross, what precisely was the "IT" that was finished. Bible students down through the ages have used this phrase of Jesus to mean many things including the "finish" of ages, dispensations, justice, the law, His sufferings, redemption... etc. etc.
What was He talking about?
FYI, the Greek for the phrase is actually "It has been finished"... meaning whatever it is that was finished was finished before he said the words. It was two verses prior to this that He realized that it was indeed finished:
Joh 19:28
28 After this, when Jesus realized that everything was now completed, he said (in order to fulfill the Scripture), "I'm thirsty."
Here are the literals showing the tense:
Joh 19:30
(LITV) Then when Jesus took the vinegar, He said, It has been finished. And bowing His head, He delivered up the spirit.
(YLT) when, therefore, Jesus received the vinegar, he said, `It hath been finished;' and having bowed the head, gave up the spirit.
If you respond, please answer this also....
If you think He was saying that all the requirements of redemption had been met and therefore it was the redemptive work that was finished, then why did He proceed on and die?
Why did He lie in the grave for three days and three nights? (I won't even get into the "hell" idea!).
Why did He not just swoop down off the cross and ascend unto the Father?
Thanks before hand for your responses.
Dids
30 When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.
When Jesus spoke those powerful words on the cross, what precisely was the "IT" that was finished. Bible students down through the ages have used this phrase of Jesus to mean many things including the "finish" of ages, dispensations, justice, the law, His sufferings, redemption... etc. etc.
What was He talking about?
FYI, the Greek for the phrase is actually "It has been finished"... meaning whatever it is that was finished was finished before he said the words. It was two verses prior to this that He realized that it was indeed finished:
Joh 19:28
28 After this, when Jesus realized that everything was now completed, he said (in order to fulfill the Scripture), "I'm thirsty."
Here are the literals showing the tense:
Joh 19:30
(LITV) Then when Jesus took the vinegar, He said, It has been finished. And bowing His head, He delivered up the spirit.
(YLT) when, therefore, Jesus received the vinegar, he said, `It hath been finished;' and having bowed the head, gave up the spirit.
If you respond, please answer this also....
If you think He was saying that all the requirements of redemption had been met and therefore it was the redemptive work that was finished, then why did He proceed on and die?
Why did He lie in the grave for three days and three nights? (I won't even get into the "hell" idea!).
Why did He not just swoop down off the cross and ascend unto the Father?
Thanks before hand for your responses.
Dids