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Except, of course that's only a paradigmatic rationalization.
JESUS WAS TEMPTED IN EVERY RESPECT AS WE ARE - go argue with the Bible. And the mechanism of temptation is given in the James passage that you eliminated the parts you didn't like from.
Sir, You are quite welcome. Any time.Thank you so much for telling me I'm terribly mistaken.
"Grace (gratia, Charis), in general, is a supernatural gift of God to intellectual creatures (men, angels) for their eternal salvation, whether the latter be furthered and attained through salutary acts or a state of holiness. Eternal salvation itself consists in heavenly bliss resulting from the intuitive knowledge of the Triune God, who to the one not endowed with grace "inhabiteth light inaccessible" (1 Timothy 6:16). Christian grace is a fundamental idea of the Christian religion, the pillar on which, by a special ordination of God, the majestic edifice of Christianity rests in its entirety. Among the three fundamental ideas — sin, redemption, and grace — grace plays the part of the means, indispensable and Divinely ordained, to effect the redemption from sin through Christ and to lead men to their eternal destiny in heaven." CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA: Sanctifying GraceHere's what's weak in your approach. You base it on English translations and not on original languages. And I'm not sure I want to take your say-so for what a Catholic view of grace is.
Romans 3Oh no..... I would never question some one else's salvation.
By they way, sorry about not getting back to you sooner, but I was gone camping for a few day's.
Now getting back to our discussion. I see that you answered yes to the questions I put forth to you. Yes you are seeking God in your life, and yes you agree with 'ByTheSpirit' when it say's in Rom.3:23 "for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God", and that when this passage say's 'ALL'.... that 'ALL' absolutely means 'ALL'..... Correct?
Okay, remember when I asked 'ByTheSpirit' and you... "are you seeking God in your life?" Remember when I did, I said I would explain later? Well, here is the later. The reason I asked you two that, is because in Romans 3:11, it says..."No one seeks for God." Now, if "all" in Romans verse 23 is an absolute as you've said yes too, then "no one" in Romans verse 11 has to also be an absolute.
So, as you can see, this brings up a dilemma. If "all" is an absolute in verse 23, and "no one" is an absolute, in verse 11, then those that say they are "seeking God" in their life can't be, because the Bible says "no one" seeks God. Yet, they claim they are seeking God in their life. Which means, they don't believe "no one" is an absolute. (do you?) So, if "no one" in verse 11 is not an absolute, then "all" in verse 23 is not necessarily an absolute either, would you not agree? Or could it be they are interpreting one verse one way, in order to fit their beliefs, but then they are interpreting another verse in a completely different way, in order to fit their beliefs?
Have a Blessed Day!
Quote the KJV? Maybe all the Catholics you know, but I am not in the habit of quoting from that one at all. Nor do I know many who use the KJV.
That was NOT what I said. What I said was 'not that anyone cares'. It may matter a great deal but not to all of the spiritual descendants of Martin Luther, the ones who disagree with Luther now.As you say, it doesn't matter.
No. I was referring not to the reliability or sufficiency of Scripture but to the inventor of Sola Scriptura, the person of Martin Luther. And his take on the sinlessness of Mary.Not to the topic here, anyway. That's because what you are referring to is not about the reliability and sufficiency of Scripture.
Pardon me, sir, but the OUTCOME of Job's experience was twofold:But remember the OUTCOME of the "job Exercise" was to bring Job to REPENTANCE - apparently for "Behemoth" - the tendency trust the FLESH, and "Leviathan" - Personal PRIDE.
I was referring to kecharitomene, which occurs once in Scripture. You reference three English translations that use 'favored' but I have provided a link indicating that 'favored' is far too weak a word to use for kecharitomene.Strong's Greek: 5487. χαριτόω (charitoó) — 2 Occurrences
Luke 1:28 V-RPM/P-NFS
GRK: εἶπεν Χαῖρε κεχαριτωμένη ὁ κύριος
NAS: to her, Greetings, favored one! The Lord
KJV: Hail, [thou that art] highly favoured, the Lord
INT: said Greetings [you] favored one the Lord [is]
Ephesians 1:6 V-AIA-3S
GRK: αὐτοῦ ἧς ἐχαρίτωσεν ἡμᾶς ἐν
NAS: which He freely bestowed on us in the Beloved.
KJV: us accepted in
INT: of him which he made objects of grace us in
He confessed his pride and repented /QUOTE]
Yup, that's what I said.
No. I was referring not to the reliability or sufficiency of Scripture but to the inventor of Sola Scriptura, the person of Martin Luther. And his take on the sinlessness of Mary.
And I was referring to the inventor of Sola Scriptura and his view of the sinlessness of Mary. Not discussing the reliability of Scripture, which I certainly agree with, nor the sufficiency of Scripture, which I don't quite agree with. You can discuss those things all you want although they have little to do with the sinlessness of Mary.Well, the reliability and sufficiency of Scripture is what Sola Scriptura refers to.
Well, you referred to both, but what Luther personally believed about Mary's sinning (or not), doesn't have anything to do with Sola Scriptura, which had been the focus of the discussion.And I was referring to the inventor of Sola Scriptura and his view of the sinlessness of Mary.
I remember writing this and in post 277 this only: "Nobody cares, but the inventer of Sola Scriptura also believed Mary to be sinless. Lutheran Mariology - Wikipedia". I even supplied the misspelling of 'inventor'.Well, you referred to both, but what Luther personally believed about Mary's sinning (or not), doesn't have anything to do with Sola Scriptura, which had been the focus of the discussion.
That was the point, in case there was any miscommunication, but some of that discussion had been carried on by a different poster, it probably should be added.
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