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What is wrong with Calvinism ?

Mark Quayle

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Clever, but false. Not to mention indicative of poor resources for buttressing your POV. You employ bare assertion and near ad hom. —HOW does Ephesians 2 teach otherwise than TULIP, or in opposition to TULIP? You don't say.

But then, my first two sentences here are in kind, and you may criticize them in like manner.
 
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RickReads

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I`m not sure how to be more clear about that than I was. It does not address the flaws in TULIP because man had not invented TULIP yet.

I`ll repost yet again on your behalf,

Ephesians 2 does not teach a regeneration occurring in advance of salvation, nor does it teach irresistible grace.
 
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Piper & MacArthur teach that God decrees all things that happen on earth - even the evil (including rape, murder, people going to hell), and yet purport that God desires all to be saved. That is better than what?

There isn't anything better than God is 100% in charge, God is absolutely sovereign and if some people don't like that that is too bad because that is what the scriptures say

Can a dead person respond to anything? No. So do the scriptures say that the natural man is dead? Eph 2:1 "And you He made alive, who were dead in trespasses and sins..." and 2:5 "even when we were dead in trespasses, He made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved)" and Col 2:13 "And you, being dead in your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He has made alive together with Him, having forgiven you all trespasses." Prior to our conversion by the Lord Jesus Christ we were all dead. It is only by God's grace (and not our free will) that we are alive.

If it is only because we give God the authority to convert us (He cannot violate our free will remember) then that means that we have more power than God! If this is true we need to stop singing about God's grace and start singing about our wonderful and powerful free will. I suggest new words to Amazing Grace. Here we go:

Amazing free will how sweet the sound
that saved a wretch like me, I once was
lost but now am found twas blind but now I see.

Surely some 7-11 praise song writer can take this and run with it.
 
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Mark Quayle

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Basically, I see little difference from your first question, in your rephrase. You may as well ask why the universe is as it is. God is not possessed of random inclinations. The universe is what it is because God made it so, "according to his good pleasure". So the Bride.

But there is something else: I have, since I was little, puzzled over the question of how it is possible for God to create anything that is other than himself. But that that creation should be capable of rebelling against, or attempting to work in opposition to God, is to my mind staggering, outrageous, even non-sensical, monstrous! But he did it, so that his particular creation (as the completed construction—the Bride of Christ) is exactly the ONLY creation that can be counted worthy of being ONE WITH GOD, in a way that no other creation —not even the angels— can be. That narrows down considerably, the options we perceive as possibilities.

Also, in keeping with God's nature, that is not subject to principles from outside himself, and so is not subject to our supposed "randomness" or "chance", EVERYTHING he does is specific. The Bride is no haphazard conglomeration of random cells.

But I guess I'm more or less repeating myself with this answer, just as it seems to me you were doing with your expanded question.

Maybe all you are asking Romans 9, is why he made Clark. It was for the purpose of making Jimmy into that member of the Bride. But I continue to repeat myself.
 
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Why are we the faithful in Christ Jesus? Was it because we exercised our free will after we were physically born of a woman, or was it God who "chose us in Him (Christ) before the foundation of the world" as you quoted above? We are the faithful in Christ Jesus because He chose us, and now we are "holy and blameless before Him in love."

There are over 60 passages of scripture in the NT only that says that God (or Jesus) chooses us, has chosen us, or has elected us to salvation. There are zero that says we chose Him, or seek for Him by an act of our free will. Our free will is diametrically opposed to God's revealed will. Eve used her free will in the Garden and left the mess we are in now. David used his free will to have an affair with Bathsheba, then used his free will to have her husband murdered. Joseph's brothers by their free will sold Joseph into slavery and lied to their father. Jonah used his free will to go east instead of west rather than following God's will.
 
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zoidar

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That is not what I'm asking. My question is why God created Jimmy for the purpose of member of the Bride, but not Clark.

I see you give two answers to this:

1. God could only create the universe this way to be worthy of being one with God. In other words God could only create Jimmy for heaven and Clark for judgement for the creation to be worthy of being one with God.

It could be so, but I see no reason for why that would be the case.

2. God created Jimmy for heaven for His purpose and Clark for judgement for His purpose. Why we don't know (more than it was for His pleassure) unless 1. is correct.
 
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Jesus is YHWH

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That hurts man, but in my defense, I want to point out to ya that I've been thrown out of much classier forums than that place.
It was no insult to you as I last 1-2 days . I post the same here . It’s 100% biased against all non Calvinists.
 
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Mark Quayle

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Wow. Well, I'm not going to say @Clare73 does no such thing. But I would have to go back through the posts to see where, for example, "4. Constantly demands to know how arguments made from Acts and NT Epistles relate to terms in Christ's parable (wheat, tare, sheep, goat)." is accurate. I have wondered at least once, how the wheat and tares subject came up, but have not seen it in such frequency as what I could call a methodology. But I will say that we all do such things as all 5 of your objections.

1) Read, for example, @RickReads, or me, or even yourself, to find personal criticism, condescension and arrogance. Sometimes we do it from mere habit, and some of us do so because of our personality type, (which, granted, is no excuse), and some of us do it in reaction to the same projected at us.

2) The whole council of God, impossible to show on this format, is nevertheless a valid (the valid(?)) judge of any doctrinal claim. Clare is right to invoke the principle. And are Scripture's passages not to be studied, explained, applied, interpreted, used? I'm not sure what your objection is here.

3) I will claim this fault myself, when, for example Ephesians 2:1-10 clearly says exactly and more concisely than I can, what I have been trying to get across. But so do all of us do that, sometimes with no more commentary than to say, "this means that we cooperate with God", or, "this means that we do choose" as though the implication is plain that our choosing implies no specific predestination. I think, too, that you will have to admit that sometimes the explanation or commentary runs so much longer than the text that it is counterproductive to include it.

4) Already answered above, in my first paragraph

5) FWIW it is a matter of principle that the Reformed try to be Reformable. But I have to say, it is something all of us do, that when we love something (such as the pure meaning/implications of Grace or of "Freewill"), we do have a tendency to insulate ourselves from opposing-sounding communications, or to be antagonistic towards them. Also, I too debated with myself early on whether to label myself Reformed, for that very reason. I claim 'Reformed' only because Reformed Theology most closely resembles what I think, and so that others who think like I do would more quickly know what I think by common reference. I don't think it is fair to accuse Clare of posing, or of being Calvinistic for Calvinism's sake —certainly no more than how others do what they do, perhaps by clinging to the name of Baptist or Methodist or whatever other denomination they think they can, instead of outright naming themselves "freewiller" which "is [what they] obviously [are]" and defend.

In Clare's defense (yes, no doubt, I am biased) I have yet to hear something she has posted that was merely pointless or petty. I think more often the angry responses she gets are the result of the frustration of people who don't know how to defend their opinions against the plain reason of her attacks on them. Also, I have seen this: that we all have a POV problem with any other person, whose statements are as often as not taken to imply things they simply had not meant.
 
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Clare73

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I may be wrong, but I think Mark was trying to get you to see the only answer is the one Scripture gives: the sovereign choice of God for his purpose and pleasure.
So I see that as a similar dilemma as we have in Calvinism where we don't know why God creates A for heaven but not B.
For me it's not a dilemma, it is simply God's sovereign will.
 
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RickReads

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It was no insult to you as I last 1-2 days . I post the same here . It’s 100% biased against all non Calvinists.

I`m just kidding. If I can't be me then I would have no interest in contributing content. I don't see online forums as a good place to win souls so that isn't the purpose of my remarks in these situations.
 
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RickReads

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I plead innocent of all the charges
 
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John Mullally

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There isn't anything better than God is 100% in charge, God is absolutely sovereign and if some people don't like that that is too bad because that is what the scriptures say
I don't believe He is controlling everything at this time. In Matthew 6:10, Christ tells His disciples to pray "Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven." The mere fact that Christ asks them to pray it means that Matthew 6:10 is in fact God's perfect Will. But we do not see heaven on earth yet. Therefore, some of God's perfect Will is not being done at this time. The fact that Christ asks His disciples to pray that, means they have a role in some of that being done.
If the Holy Spirit draws men during the preaching of the Gospel to repentance, then from the non-Calvinist POV they are saved and born-again at the same time. Are you saying the Holy Spirit cannot do this? Acts 2:38-39 promises remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit to those who repent and are baptized in response to his preaching. Those two things may be considered as being equivalent to being both born-again and saved.
I suggest new words to Amazing Grace. Here we go:

Amazing free will how sweet the sound
that saved a wretch like me, I once was
lost but now am found twas blind but now I see.

Surely some 7-11 praise song writer can take this and run with it.
Nice song
 
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Clare73

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My bad, I inadvertently left off the ending, "the power to choose without external force or constraint, what he prefers, likes," which is self.
To deny such is to deny Romans 3:9-18, Romans 8:7-8, Romans 11:33; 1 Corinthians 2:14.

Likewise, man does not have the power to choose to be sinless; i.e., to never sin in thought, word or deed.
To deny such, is to deny the plain facts of humanity.
Man's condemnation for sin is based on more than the "occasions of sin."
All are condemned from birth by the sin of Adam (Romans 5:18).
 
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Mark Quayle

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That reasoning is a cop-out, and somewhat arrogantly or disrespectfully done, I think. You know well the Calvinist points, referred to as TULIP, are not considered man's invention, though the expression of them and the systematic inclusion of them into a group can be considered man's invention, and certainly the acrostic reference "TULIP" is man's invention. Besides that, YOU are the one who brought up TULIP. I hadn't mentioned it in my post quoting Ephesians 2.

But to your points:

1) "Ephesians 2 does not teach a regeneration occurring in advance of salvation"

After no mention of man's choice (except towards evil) verse 5 says that God "made us alive with Christ even when we were dead in transgressions—it is by grace you have been saved". Do I need to say that that, (God making the dead alive), is regeneration?? Or is that not obvious? And do you claim that the dead in sin are already saved, while still dead in their sins? And since no passage is to be interpreted by itself only, do you understand what imputation is within the context of salvation?? "Saved" necessarily implies all these things, which you take to be acts of the human will, and God says are not. To be sure, God does not say that the human will does not decide, but that it is not the operative principle behind the success or actuality or reality of what has happened.

Also, I do not teach that Regeneration necessarily occurs in advance of Salvation as a time sequence, but that salvation, (and all other facts and virtues related to being born again), is a result of the "installation" (my word) by God of his Spirit into us, who were dead in sin. And that 'installation' is, or is the immediate cause of, regeneration. That indwelling, (not simply "possession of" as can be said of demons), that making his home in us, is permanent, and changes the nature of person indwelt. Unlike "free will" and its necessary "prevenient grace", this is not a mere theological construction we add to Scripture. It is what Ephesians 2 (and many other places) plainly teaches.

2) "Ephesians 2 does not... ...teach irresistible grace".

But in fact, it does. As I mentioned above, without any reference to man's choice, except towards evil, before God regenerates us, it shows God's grace being given us apart from any qualifying choice on our part. We do not even know he is changing us, until we see a difference. There is no mention of him asking our permission to regenerate us, any more than there is any mention of his asking our permission to give us life to begin with.

GRACE by definition means it is not by any action of ours, but all done by God, and that can't be made any more clear than Ephesians 2 makes it. "8 For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this is not from yourselves, it is the gift of God— 9 not by works, so that no one can boast."
 
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Mark Quayle

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The fact that God judges men means they must be able at some point to respond positively to Him.
This is it, in a nutshell. THIS is humanocentric, human reasoning. God says no such thing. It is only your judgement that claims it.

The question is not whether the command implies the ability to obey. The question is whether the person does or does not choose, according to their inclinations or desires —that is, according to their will. The Bible shows that they ALWAYS do.
 
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John Mullally

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At least when I am debating with you, you will own positions from which I can counter. Not so, when the other person uses tried and true asymmetrical Calvinist debate tactics and will not admit to being a Calvinist, rather referring to them self as "I study Paul" - give me a break. He even asks you not to bring up Calvinism when addressing Him. Good debate requires transparency.
 
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So none pre-Christ were 'born again'?

The term "born again" (or "born from above" which I prefer) is used for the very first time in scripture in John 3:3. The response of Nicodemus is indicative of his surprise at Christ's statement. He had never heard the phrase prior to that night.

I'm not sure if the OT saints were "born from above" in the New Testament sense or way, but I do believe they were chosen in Christ before the foundation of the world as stated in Ephesians 1:4.
 
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