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What confuses many is that a Hebrew/Jewish day occurs over *two western days. The following shows that the "Good Friday" scenario is flawed as it does not satisfy all relevant scripture passages being: "on the third day." "three days and three nights" and "after three days"
Counting the elapsed Days beginning on the first day to Unleavened Bread on Nisan 15 to
the third day of Unleavend Bread on Nisan 17 is First Fruits "on the third day"
Sistr, just because you were told Jesus only spoke in Hebrew does not mean it was true. Greek was clearly the language of the day. The Jews even referred to their holy gathering places using a Greek word "synagogue." The Jewish prophet John the Baptist was called by a Greek name "baptist." Most of the scriptures quoted from the OT into the NT came from the Greek Septuagint (the Greek trans. of the OT) which was the common bible they used. The idea that these Jews only spoke in Hebrew is not even close to true (as per my few examples above, and there are lots more).
And on your assertion that I believe parables are only for the elite, is also far from true, because it's not what I believe and I never said that. Contrary to what you said, Yeshua often spoke in parables and many times even his closest disciples did not understand what he was meaning:
NAS Matthew 15:15 And Peter answered and said to Him, "Explain the parable to us."
NAS Luke 8:9 And His disciples began questioning Him as to what this parable might be.
Mark 9:31-32 31 because he was teaching his disciples. He said to them, "The Son of Man is going to be betrayed into the hands of men. They will kill him, and after three days he will rise." 32 But they did not understand what he meant and were afraid to ask him about it.
Often times the Lord wants us to seek him for deeper meaning, when deeper meaning is meant.
All of the above post by you does get one thinking about whether today was (8:20pm CT) really the 7th Day Sabbath. Like you said, maybe the present-day Jewish calendar is off by several years as well as off by a day or two.are these dates the same as your Aish Luach Hebrew calendar?
3787 = Wed, April 7, 27 AD
3790 = Wed, April 3, 30 AD
3793 = Fri, April 1, 33 AD
3796 = Fri, March 28, 36 AD (end quote)
No, what Aish says for the 14th day (erev pesach) is :
3787 = Wed April 9, 27 AD
3790 = Wed, April 5, 30AD
3793 = Fri, April 3, 33AD
3796 = Fri, March 30, 36AD
My memory is not the best, but when I did research this I remember that one difference that often comes up was that when Hillel did the calendar (after the Temple was destroyed and they could not go out to see the new moon) they had a certain rule where adjustments were made to certain Sabbath days would not occur two days in a row. Just going by memory, I remember proving that during the time of Yeshua they did not follow that rule. So that may be another reason why certain projections are a day or two off.
I do believe that NASA's calculations are accurate, and that the incredible solar system God made can be logically made to go backwards and give accurate dates, but I still feel that for the reasons I gave things could have been off by a day either way, as it was the Sanhedrin that decided when the 14th day was, using the best and most accurate way they could at that time (by viewing the new moon).
What is your gut on it AbbaLove?!
Thank you so much AbbaLove, you will sure be missed and I hope you get back sooner! And PS I never felt those posts were trying to convince HaDerekh, I thought you were just addressing me, but regardless you and your comments will be very missed my friend. May the Lord's presence abide upon you this whole rest time!All of the above post by you does get one thinking about whether today was (8:20pm CT) really the 7th Day Sabbath. Like you said, maybe the present-day Jewish calendar is off by several years as well as off by a day or two.
YLT Colossians 2:16
Let no one, then, judge you in eating or in drinking, or in respect of a feast, or of a new moon, or of sabbaths,
NAS Romans 14:5
One person [judges]regards one day above another, another regards every day alike. Each person must be fully convinced in his own mind.
Don't know about you, but i've had that uncomfortable feeling in my gut all day that i shouldn't have been trying to convince Yeshua HaDerekh that his Pascha Friday to Sunday observance is wrong thinking. So my apology to Yeshua HaDerekh.
Have decided to give CF a rest for three months or more. Your informative posts and willingness to share portions of Messianic Feast: Beyond The Ritual in this thread has been a blessing in helping me to stretch my mind in the right Way. ... http://themessianicfeast.com/
I must say this issue has been very troubling for me. I had to take a period of time away from CF because what has been put forth here flies in the face of everything I've ever known and believed. It also is totally at odds with the teachings of Zola Levitt, the source of most of the understanding about Passover I"ve held to.
It's like up is down and down is up..I am totally confused by what is being presented here and how I could have been so foolish as to beleive as I have for nearly 4 decades.
Frankly I'm wondering in confusion and for now see no way out of my lot.
I know that the Wednesday crucifixion and Saturday resurrection is a popular belief, but there are certain scriptures it breaks.
Now it was being debated just what was meant in the NT by 'breaking Bread'.
Every time Yeshua speaks of himself symbolically as "bread" he uses the Greek word (arton) for regular daily bread which was leavened. Whether it is the "bread of life", the "bread of heaven", the "bread of God", or the bread in the last supper parables, not once does he ever use the Greek word for unleavened bread (azumos) in these references to himself. The unleavened bread was called the "bread of affliction" and was of course not the preferred way to eat bread, being much less flavorful.
I must say this issue has been very troubling for me. I had to take a period of time away from CF because what has been put forth here flies in the face of everything I've ever known and believed. It also is totally at odds with the teachings of Zola Levitt, the source of most of the understanding about Passover I"ve held to.
It's like up is down and down is up..I am totally confused by what is being presented here and how I could have been so foolish as to beleive as I have for nearly 4 decades.
Frankly I'm wondering in confusion and for now see no way out of my lot.
Lots of words written in this thread.
Has the 3 hours of total darkness that began the moment Jesus died been factored in to all of this.
Reply to the video. It cannot be proved that unleavened bread was not used at the last supper.
οὐ φάγῃ ἐπ᾽ αὐτοῦ ζύμην ἑπτὰ ἡμέρας φάγῃ ἐπ᾽ αὐτοῦ ἄζυμα ἄρτον κακώσεως ὅτι ἐν σπουδῇ ἐξήλθετε ἐξ Αἰγύπτου ἵνα μνησθῆτε τὴν ἡμέραν τῆς ἐξοδίας ὑμῶν ἐκ γῆς Αἰγύπτου πάσας τὰς ἡμέρας τῆς ζωῆς ὑμῶν
לֹא־תֹאכַ֤ל עָלָיו֙ חָמֵ֔ץ שִׁבְעַ֥ת יָמִ֛ים תֹּֽאכַל־עָלָ֥יו מַצּ֖וֹת לֶ֣חֶם עֹ֑נִי כִּ֣י בְחִפָּז֗וֹן יָצָ֙אתָ֙ מֵאֶ֣רֶץ מִצְרַ֔יִם לְמַ֣עַן תִּזְכֹּ֗ר אֶת־י֤וֹם צֵֽאתְךָ֙ מֵאֶ֣רֶץ מִצְרַ֔יִם כֹּ֖ל יְמֵ֥י חַיֶּֽיךָ׃
Matza = bread of affliction = לחם עני = ἄρτον = same word used at the last supper.
Deut. 16:3.
Mark 14:22 Καὶ ἐσθιόντων αὐτῶν λαβὼν ἄρτον εὐλογήσας ἔκλασεν καὶ ἔδωκεν αὐτοῖς καὶ εἶπεν· λάβετε, τοῦτό ἐστιν τὸ σῶμά μου.
The Galileans removed the leaven as early as just after sunset for Nisan 13 going into Nisan 14.
Yes Grafted, I cover that in the last two or three pages of this chapter:Lots of words written in this thread.
Has the 3 hours of total darkness that began the moment Jesus died been factored in to all of this.
Hello Daniel,
The writers of scripture understood Greek very well, and they knew the word for common daily bread (arton), and they know the Greek word for unleavened bread (azumos). There is no reason they would not use one more Greek letter and use the proper Greek word, especially for the scandal it would cause had this really been the Passover, which it was not. If you want to read chapter one in my book where I prove this I will add the link below. In that chapter I go into proving several points in full detail, but I’ll add just one very shortened point here. In the Hebrew scriptures God foretold that the Messiah would be betrayed by one eating his “bread” (Hebrew = lechem). This was the common daily word for bread in Hebrew as I’m sure you know. So if God by his foreknowledge says they would be eating “bread” at this betrayal, and it was supposedly the Passover, wouldn’t He have used the Hebrew word for what is eaten at Passover, matzah?
Hello Daniel,
I read the article you wrote against my blog and I allowed you to post that link on my website. I have been very busy on another book but will respond when I get time. I realize that you want to believe the Messiah and his kosher Jewish disciples ate unleavened bread at this last supper.(1)
The traditions go back 1700 years to Rome that all agree with you.(2) The main reason for this is because when Rome disconnected from any (3) Jewish influence and scripture understanding they decided the Last Supper was the Passover meal, where unleavened bread was of course required. Some who more recently have questioned this tradition have decided that it was some type of practice Passover, as if these first-century Jews didn’t understand how to do a Passover real well so they practiced the night before.(4) But those followers of the Messiah knew more about how to keep the Passover then any man alive today, they had grown up going to the Temple each year for a real Passover sacrifice, and they certainly didn’t need a practice run having the Messiah right there with them. That belief only came about from the tradition started by Rome that they were eating unleavened bread at this meal. And for the great majority of Christians today that believe this was the Passover, following Rome’s lead, one only needs to look through the first-century Jewish lens for a brief moment to realize they would not go around Jerusalem saying they all ate “bread” at what was a Passover (or even a practice run).(5) Even today you would not go into the Orthodox section of Jerusalem with a brown bag of “bread” and go to the Rabbi’s house and say “Shalom Rabbi, I have brought “bread” for us to eat at Passover.” (6) The writers of scripture understood Greek very well, and they knew the word for common daily bread (arton), and they know the Greek word for unleavened bread (azumos). (7) There is no reason they would not use one more Greek letter and use the proper Greek word, especially for the scandal it would cause had this really been the Passover, which it was not. (8) If you want to read chapter one in my book where I prove this I will add the link below. In that chapter I go into proving several points in full detail, but I’ll add just one very shortened point here. In the Hebrew scriptures God foretold that the Messiah would be betrayed by one eating his “bread” (Hebrew = lechem). This was the common daily word for bread in Hebrew as I’m sure you know. (9) So if God by his foreknowledge says they would be eating “bread” at this betrayal, and it was supposedly the Passover, wouldn’t He have used the Hebrew word for what is eaten at Passover, matzah?(10)
I solve the long standing controversy
The bread used in Eastern Orthodoxy is called Artos. It is leavened.
If so, an anachronistic custom.
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