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What is the Scriptural Basis for Cessationism?

Oct 21, 2003
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So here we are debating something that wasn't a debate until the Holiness movement and after them the Pentecostal movement came onto the scene roughly give or take 1,800+ years into Christianity. Makes no sense that God would withhold the gift of prophecy for so long and from so many giants of the faith. Makes no sense considering the "fruit" of so many wanna be prophets. Continualism huh?

Ephesians 2:20 "having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ Himself being the chief cornerstone,"

So assuming continualism, to be consistent, we would have to assume a continuation of the offices of prophet and apostle, no?

No thanks, I'll pass.
 
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Major1

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Yes, Neo, the coming of the Bible is in their eyes "the perfect". How they arrive at that conclusion is beyond me

Other than the Bible, what other "Perfect" has come to the earth?

It has to be Jesus Christ and He has already come. So then if we say the Bible that is correct. If we say Jesus that is correct as well.
 
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Major1

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Understanding teleion as a reference to the completed canon has several advantages. First, the meaning “complete,” or “whole,” is well attested in Paul’s writings.

Second, the adjective teleion is used elsewhere in the New Testament to describe God’s Word (James 1:25).

Third, and most importantly, the canon view does not pit a quantitative concept (ek merous) against a qualitative concept, as do the ideal and maturity views. It allows both expressions to be understood quantitatively. In other, words, the concept of “complete” is a natural antithesis to the concept of “in part.”

Thus, the idea of completed Scripture furnishes the best antithesis to the partial revelations given through the gifts of knowledge, prophecy, and tongues, because both expressions are taken in a quantitative sense.
The Meaning of "The Perfect" in 1 Corinthians 13:8-13
 
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Major1

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As best as I can recall, I do not remember one single Scripture that even suggests the continuation of the office of apostle in the Bible.

Paul uses the adjectival noun, teleios, in place of explicitly saying, the Word (Scriptures) because...…………...

A) it is already familiar to his audience Jm 1:25 as James referred to the Word in the context of spiritual maturity. Paul frames the context by giving examples of personal maturity to announce the same.

B) Paul used the mirror analog just as James had which serves to identify the Adjectival noun, Teleios, as being the same as James use of Teleios, Perfect Law of Liberty (which came from the written Word).

C) The James reference to the adjective "teleios" being associated with the Word was clear to the Corinthians because they had already read the book of James.

D) James 1:1 states that the book was addressed to the dispersed 12 tribes... therefore God Himself would have made sure the Jews in Corinth would read the book of James.

E) 1 Cor 15:7 "After that He was seen by James, then by all the apostles." Paul name drops James as though the Corinthian audience would somehow all know this James well enough to be a credible witness to the resurrection of Christ. This James by virtue of being an eye witness to the resurrection of Christ and the whole of Corinth Believers not being originally from the Land it must be understood that Paul considers the Corinthians to have come to know this James via Jame's earlier letter to them.
1 Corinthians 13:10 - What does "The Perfect" Refer to?
 
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Major1

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Dave Miller, Ph.D, Apologetics Press :...…..
"... the exegete is forced to conclude that Paul’s use of “perfect” referred to the completed revelation or totally revealed New Testament Scriptures."

Robert L. Thomas, Understanding the Spiritual Gifts, pg. 130 ……..
"... a completion of the revelatory gifts coincided with the completion of the New Testament".

According to Marshall in Nestle’s Interlinear Greek-English New Testament,
Teleion is in the neuter gender and renders it, "the perfect thing."

The Greek teleion simply describes action that is essentially progressive. The action was begun at the point of inception, continues in the proper course, and then it arrives at its destination. This latter state is the idea of teleion. Teleion, then, is the arrived at state, the state to which all anterior action looked, the goal to which all previous forward effort and action was directed.

Hence, teleion is complete or the completed as opposed to "in part" or fragmentary. That in no way describes Jesus Christ either in His 1st coming or His 2nd Coming as He was Perfect all the time and did not arrive at a state of perfection.
That Which Is Perfect
 
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Major1

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W.E. Vine wrote: ……………..
“With the completion of Apostolic testimony and the completion of the Scriptures of truth (‘the faith once for all delivered to the saints,’ Jude 3, RV), ‘that which is perfect’ had come, and the temporary gifts were done away”.
(Commentary on First Corinthians, Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1951, p. 184).

Finally, there is this very telling point. Those who profess to speak in tongues today reveal a woeful inconsistency. In their mission training schools, they must teach their missionaries to speak in the “tongues” of those nations they seek to evangelize. This practice demolishes their contention of being in possession of the miraculous gift of tongues, such as that exhibited on the day of Pentecost.
Can Christians "Speak in Tongues" Today?
 
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Jair Crawford

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Considering that a huge chunk of said 1800 years of church history was regulated to the early Roman Catholic Church who kept the lay people from reading and studying scriptures for themselves, why does this surprise you?

The history of the church and of religion is not an appropriate litmus test. The Holy Spirit and Scripture is. And Scripture clearly states "Earnestly seek the gift of prophecy" and "do not forbid the speaking of tongues".
 
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swordsman1

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Considering that a huge chunk of said 1800 years of church history was regulated to the early Roman Catholic Church who kept the lay people from reading and studying scriptures for themselves, why does this surprise you?

If the RC church was responsible for the suppression of the charismatic gifts then why didn't they reappear at the Reformation when there was a great movement of the Holy Spirit? It wasn't until the start of the twentieth century that people started claiming to have gifts that had previously ceased.

The history of the church and of religion is not an appropriate litmus test. The Holy Spirit and Scripture is. And Scripture clearly states "Earnestly seek the gift of prophecy" and "do not forbid the speaking of tongues".

Those verses don't say those gifts continue today. Paul was writing to a church which at the time still had those gifts present.
 
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Jair Crawford

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It took time for the reformation to break out of certain religious traditions. Not being open to the gifts easily could have been one of them.

Scripture also does not assert that they have ceased. It says that they will one day cease but any assertion that they have is speculation.
 
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swordsman1

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It took time for the reformation to break out of certain religious traditions. Not being open to the gifts easily could have been one of them.

The Reformation broke away completely from the RC church and all it's trappings in the early 1600's. The Reformers were staunchly anti-Catholic. There were no lingering traditions in the Protestant church that prevented the Holy Spirit from reinstating these gifts if He wanted to. Yet the gifts did not reappear. Not until the beginning of the 20th century when people in the new Pentecostal movement suddenly claimed to possess such gifts (although their versions of the gifts do not match the biblical descriptions).

Scripture also does not assert that they have ceased. It says that they will one day cease but any assertion that they have is speculation.

Scripture doesn't say much about cessation because the gifts were still in operation when scripture was written. Even so scripture does say that prophecy, along with apostles, was only for the foundation of the church (Eph 2:20). Most people agree that apostles ceased (which is listed as a gift in 1 Cor 12:28) at the end of the apostolic age. And according to 1 Cor 13:8-10 when prophecy ceased so also would tongues, when 'completeness' came. See my previous post #29 on this thread to see what 'completeness' is.
 
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112358

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Both scripture and any amount of common sense assert cessation with absolute certainty. I extend the same invitation I have extended elsewhere to anyone here, or any of your brethren known to possess those gifts, to come to my city and heal my dying friend of his terminal cancer. And if that is not the gift which any of you possess, then please demonstrate which of those gifts you do possess. But of course, as is always the case, and contrary to the very purpose of the gifts, they are always for private interpretation or experience. they are never executed in plain sight for all to witness and marvel. They can never be proven without a doubt.

Watching Benny Hinn slap people across the forehead on TV does not a biblical sign gift make. This is one of the biggest blights to the truth that ever existed. It's what makes most of the secular world take one look at "Christianity" and dismiss it as a mythical fairy tale. Heartbreaking and infuriating.
 
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Jair Crawford

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Your statement on scripture and common sense is in and of itself an assertion based on your interpretation. But let me ponder your invitation for a moment and subsequent comments;

Actually I share your frustration with celebrity TV "healers" like Hinn. I should aside that in my opinion, it is perfectly possible that Hinn has been able to lay hands on people and God heal them, but it's his turning it into a business that makes me question things.

That being said, I do not believe the gift of healing has ceased. I would have no problem laying hands on your friend and declaring healing in faith. I do not have much experience with this and I do not know all the answers to how God moves in these ways, but I believe He does move.

(I should also note that I am by NO means anti-doctor. That can be dangerous.)

I've heard people say that if people like Hinn truly had the gift of healing, he would be praying in hospitals not on TV. That could be true. But I can tell you that if God moves me to do so, I would LOVE to do just such a thing! People often use that as a rebuttal but I say, yes! Let's gather at the hospitals and see what He does!

Why not?
 
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bbbbbbb

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Although I have never encountered a genuine Christian healer I do know two things. First, the world is full of charlatans of all sorts who mock Christianity as they fleece the flock. Their judgement is sure and it is coming. Second, God in His providence does miraculously heal some rare individuals of physical diseases. Those whom I have known who have been healed give glory to God alone and confess that no other Christian was the means of their healing.
 
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112358

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Why not? Because if you or anyone else possessed the powers associated with healing that the apostles possessed, you wouldn't have to go to the hospital to find them. They would be beating down your door. You wouldn't be able to get away from them. They would cut a hole in your ceiling to get to you. They would look for every opportunity to pass under your shadow if nothing else.

If you were a qualified elder in a biblical congregation of the Lord's church I would gladly accept your invitation to lay hands on my friend and pray for healing. But if we did that under those circumstances, and my friend be healed, it would be through the work of the Lord, nothing else. That is entirely different than the healing the apostles were doing. It was THEM healing people through the power granted them by Jesus and the Holy Spirit. Those powers were for a specific purpose and time, and they died with the apostles.
 
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112358

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Exactly my point. If someone is healed it is by the hand of the Lord, no one else. That is entirely different than what the apostles were doing. They were healing people by their own hands, through the power granted them by Jesus Christ.
 
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Major1

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Common sense???

You are very correct and IF there was such a thing as faith healing by men, why do you think that we never ever see any of them in a hospital going from room to room healing everyone there.

We see them in football stadiums, and auditoriums and churches always taking up a "Love offering" but never in hospitals.

What does your common sense tell you????
 
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bbbbbbb

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Exactly my point. If someone is healed it is by the hand of the Lord, no one else. That is entirely different than what the apostles were doing. They were healing people by their own hands, through the power granted them by Jesus Christ.

Absolutely!
 
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Jair Crawford

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Exactly my point. If someone is healed it is by the hand of the Lord, no one else. That is entirely different than what the apostles were doing. They were healing people by their own hands, through the power granted them by Jesus Christ.

This has always seemed like semantics to me. Because both of those examples are really not at all that different, no?

Whether we pray for divine healing or are led by the Holy Spirit to lay hands on someone in faith that they be healed (as the apostles did), it is still God doing the healing.
 
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Jair Crawford

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I honestly wouldn't be surprised if there are people who go to hospitals. We just don't hear about it because those people aren't interested in making a show of it, but interested in what God is doing.

As for the stadiums? Mammon.
 
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