That's what I thought you said.
Good. Unfortunately you said something else.
Where did I put words in your mouth?
Here:
Please make your logical case for the necessity of time being eternal.
In response to my statement, that, like the assumptiom "time is eternal", the statement "time has a beginning" comes with logical problems, too.
You're right. There is no temporal "before time." But there can be things logically prior to other things where time is not involved at all.
Is a completely different thing than what I said and what you wanted me to support, but interesting.
I´m not sure I understand, then, why I see you going to great length about eternity, atemporality, temporality and stuff, whilst in fact your point is one of "logical priority".
Not true at all. In fact causes cannot be temporally separated from their effects.
As far as I can see I haven´t even mentioned cause and effect in the statement you quoted. How the heck does changing the topic make my statement untrue?
Only logic can determine which is prior (or causal).
Undisputed, as long as you use "prior" as in "logically prior" and not as in "temporally prior", which is a completely different meaning. Please make sure you don´t equivocate.
The two actually happen simultaneously.
Not necessarily. In order for constituting a "logical prior" nothing needs to happen at all, to begin with.
In fact you could have a debate over which was the cause and which was the effect.
Now, you are jumping to and fro between three different, distinct topics: "temporal sequence" (which was what I made a statement about), logical priority and "cause and effect". This sounds confuse, at least it is confusing me.
Technically, only a free self-determining agent could be a true cause.
This is a very special definition. Although you are free to work from this definition, make sure you don´t equivocate it with what common use of "cause and effect" signify. It has, e.g., nothing at all to do with what science calls "cause and effect".
If following your definition, we don´t observe cause and effect at all. None of the causes we observe and constitute (practically and logically) are "free self determining agents".
I can´t help the impression that you, at some point, replace the common meaning of "cause" by "cause(fsda)", and would me believe that what is stated to require a "cause", must therefore require a "cause(fsda)".
E.g. something can be logically prior to something else without being a "cause(fsda)".
This would kind of tie into my other thread on freewill.
I try to avoid "freewill" discussions, though not always successfully. I have yet to see a consistent concept attached to this term. In fact "freewill" is already a contradiction in terms, and it is a logical impossibility. But that´s a completely nother topic.
But causes don't require, indeed never have, a time gap between them and their effect.
Agreed. Has not been my claim, though.
The two occur at the exact same moment.
"Cause and effect" in the way you use them are logical conjunctions, concepts. They don´t "occur" at all.
Whilst "occurances" require there to be time.
So God would not need to temporally precede the universe. He would merely need to logically precede it.
True, if you talk about god as an abstract logical concept, an idea.
The fact that the idea "god" exists, is obvious and undisputed.
What I am missing in the first place, though, is an argument why I would have to expect there a cause(fsda) for the universe.