shmuel said:
The word 'eloah, alef-lamed-he is masculine. The final he is consonantal and part of the root. It is not a mater serving as a marker for the feminine. The "a" that appears in 'eloah is not a full vowel. It is a furtive patach, a very brief "a" sound to facilitate pronouncing the he following the "o" sound.
That is true, as far as modern Hebrew is concerned. However, Eloah (Aleph, Lamed, Vav, He as well as Aleph, Lamed, He) was used to indicate feminine diety in ancient days, when they didn't have the usage of Elilah. And Elah, a Chaldee equivalent to Eloah, although used at the time, is now borrowed from the Chaldee, which has become the modern feminine usage of today along with Elilah. It's usage in modern Hebrew as masculine is due to its usage of the One True God throughout scripture. However, Eloah in itself was considered feminine.
When you say: "The "a" that appears in 'eloah is not a full vowel. It is a furtive patach, a very brief "a" sound to facilitate pronouncing the he following the "o" sound." I do not think you are quite correct. I believe that you are thinking of the Chataph Pattach, which is a furtive Pattach, Like a regular Pattach but cut short. The difference between the Pattach and the Kamatz Gadol, isn't the length of pronounciation, but the openness of the vowel pronounciation. The difference being an "Ah" that remains strong until it stops (Kamatz Gadol), and an "Ah" that drops in sound and strength to a stop (Pattach), but the length is the same, one is just lazier than the other.
We are agreed that Elohim is the plural form of the root Eloah, and that Elohey is the possessive plurality of Eloah/Elohim, correct? Here is a scriptural usage of its feminine, as well as some translations that concur with the feminine aspect.
1 M'lakhim 11:5 (also used in verse 33 of this chapter) "Vayelekh' Sh'lomoh acharey
Ash'toreth elohey Tzidonim...etc"
Which has been translated as:
"For Sh'lomoh went after Ash'toreth,
goddess of the Tzidonim..." (Koren Edition, Jerusalem Bible ~ V
ery Good translation BTW).
"For Solomon went after Ashtoreth the
goddess of the Zidonians..." (JPS 1917)
"For Solomon went after Ashtoreth the
goddess of the Phonicians..." (JPS 1985 Edition and 1999 Edition)
"And Solomon goeth after Ashtoreth god`dess' of the Zidonians..." (Youngs Literal)
"For Solomon went after Ashtoreth the goddess of the Zidonians..." (KJV)
"And Solomon went after Ashtoreth, goddess of the Sidonians..." (JP Green's Lit Trans)
"Feminine nouns have no indication of gender when the word is feminine by nature. And although many words consist of both genders (i.e. Elohim, Avoth...etc), one gender predominates" (Ben Yehudi's Hebrew/English dictionary of modern Hebrew). I am in total agreement with this, but as I have said in my initial post "
Despite the grammer (That Elohim is generally used for Masculine plurality)
involved, and yet using a literal view (that
Elohim consists Literally of
Eloah, which
is Feminine in nature, and the masc "
im" plurality)
, I intend to show that Elohim, God, is and yet is not both male and female."
In Yeshua...
Netzari5730