I was at a friend's house today and an interesting discussion came up. My friend is getting divorced. Her husband is an alcholic, a drug addict, and mentally abusive to her. His ex wife came over to my friend's house today (bringing her stepson) and was saying that divorce is never acceptable to the Lord.
If brought up that it does state in the bible that it is acceptable due to fornication. She proceeded to tell me that that passage is not referring to sex at all. She said it was referring to the hardening of the heart against God. So that the only grounds for divorce is if your spouse turns away from God.
Now, this was a new concept to me. I had never heard fornication used in that way, so I looked it up and found:
Main Entry: for·ni·ca·tion
Pronunciation: "for-n&-'kA-sh&n
Function: noun
Etymology: Late Latin fornicatio, from fornicare to have intercourse with prostitutes, from Latin fornic- fornix arch, vault, brothel
: consensual sexual intercourse between a man and esp. single woman who are not married to each other; also : the crime of engaging in fornication compare Adultry
NOTE: Where still considered a crime, fornication is classified as a misdemeanor.
And then found this:
fornication
in every form of it was sternly condemned by the Mosaic law (Lev. 21:9; 19:29;
Deut. 22:20, 21, 23-29; 23:18; Ex. 22:16). But this word is
more frequently used in a symbolical than in its ordinary sense. It frequently
means a forsaking of God or a following after idols (Isa. 1:2; Jer. 2:20; Ezek.
16; Hos. 1:2; 2:1-5; Jer. 3:8,9).
So which is right? Divorce is ok if your spouse has an affair, or is it if they turn from God.
This is a bit of a tough question. The reason being, if your spouse is cheating... isn't that a sign they have turned from God to at least some degree? Doesn't saying it is ok if they turn from God give people too much leeway?
I'd appreciate other people's opinions on this matter.
Thank you
Selena
If brought up that it does state in the bible that it is acceptable due to fornication. She proceeded to tell me that that passage is not referring to sex at all. She said it was referring to the hardening of the heart against God. So that the only grounds for divorce is if your spouse turns away from God.
Now, this was a new concept to me. I had never heard fornication used in that way, so I looked it up and found:
Main Entry: for·ni·ca·tion
Pronunciation: "for-n&-'kA-sh&n
Function: noun
Etymology: Late Latin fornicatio, from fornicare to have intercourse with prostitutes, from Latin fornic- fornix arch, vault, brothel
: consensual sexual intercourse between a man and esp. single woman who are not married to each other; also : the crime of engaging in fornication compare Adultry
NOTE: Where still considered a crime, fornication is classified as a misdemeanor.
And then found this:
fornication
in every form of it was sternly condemned by the Mosaic law (Lev. 21:9; 19:29;
Deut. 22:20, 21, 23-29; 23:18; Ex. 22:16). But this word is
more frequently used in a symbolical than in its ordinary sense. It frequently
means a forsaking of God or a following after idols (Isa. 1:2; Jer. 2:20; Ezek.
16; Hos. 1:2; 2:1-5; Jer. 3:8,9).
So which is right? Divorce is ok if your spouse has an affair, or is it if they turn from God.
This is a bit of a tough question. The reason being, if your spouse is cheating... isn't that a sign they have turned from God to at least some degree? Doesn't saying it is ok if they turn from God give people too much leeway?
I'd appreciate other people's opinions on this matter.
Thank you
Selena