Then the cited verses are not relevant then? Or maybe, [one of us] is just translating them wrong
Matthew 7:7 doesn't exist in isolation. Look at the verses in their immediate context and then in the larger context of the full counsel of Scripture. The parallel discourse in
Luke 11:9-13 ends with the following:
Luke 11:13
13 If you then, being evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to those who ask Him!"
It seems Jesus was not making a promise to give us just anything we want to ask for, but was referring to
the giving of His Spirit.
Matthew 21:22 is a remark Jesus made
to the Twelve. Does it apply by extension to all who are believers? I don't think so. The Twelve were unique in their work as the first apostles and establishers of the Early Church. They had both special responsibilities and authority and the divine power to back them up. Not so the rest of us. This goes for the parallel passage you've cited in
Mark 11.
In
John 14:24, Jesus is again addressing his disciples directly. But this time there are some qualifications that he makes concerning prayer requests:
John 14:13-14
13 And whatever you ask in My name, that I will do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son.
14 If you ask anything in My name, I will do it.
1. The requests are to
glorify the Father in the Son.
2. The requests are to be asked in Christ's name.
These aren't the only qualifications in Scripture concerning prayer requests, however:
John 15:7
7 If you abide in Me, and My words abide in you, you will ask what you desire, and it shall be done for you.
1 John 3:22
22 And whatever we ask we receive from Him, because we keep His commandments and do those things that are pleasing in His sight.
I don't think the demand you are making of God meets the biblical criteria for getting a prayer request answered.
I have seen and heard the exact same testimonial claims from Muslims. So why are they mistaken, but you, on the other hand, are correct?
Because Christ rose from the dead and Mohammed didn't.
So, which one of us two is misinterpreting the verses pertaining to prayer? Me (or) you? What standard are your using to derive your conclusion, that I'm mistaken, and you are right?
You have ignored my point. Why is that? It doesn't follow that because God won't do as you ask, He doesn't, therefore, exist.
As I have explained, you are badly misinterpreting the verses you cherry-picked to justify the challenge you're throwing down before your Maker.
Then what is the point of any intercessory prayer?
Is your challenge
intercessory? I think not.
Prayer is not for God but for us. It reminds us of our total dependence upon God; it keeps us humble; it is the primary means of our communication with God; it makes our walk with God a much more conscious thing.
And yet I know humans exist, females exist, married people exist, and I can probably receive evidence that your wife even exists, etc....
Well, until a short time ago, you had no knowledge or experience of me whatever. I still existed, however. In any event, there is plenty of evidence for God's existence.
Why are all other religions false? Is 5/7's of the world mistaken, but you are correct?
Because the real, historical person named Jesus rose from the dead. Buddha didn't; Mohammed didn't; Krishna didn't. Only Jesus claimed to be God in the flesh and then died and rose from the dead in proof of his claim. See:
www.coldcasechristianity.com
Or, Dr. Gary Habermas' book "The Historical Jesus."
Here's a simple question...
Demonstrate that only one God must exist? Simple request.
Jesus showed himself to be God and excluded all other ways to the divine:
John 14:6
6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man comes unto the Father, but by me.