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What happened when a married man raped a virgin?

lawtonfogle

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Ok, this is far more of a Jewish history issue, but this was the closest forum I could find. If a mod knows of a better place to put it, then please move it (if it wouldn't be too much trouble).

Anyways, as I currently understand OT laws, if a man raped a married or engaged woman, he was put to death. If he raped a virgin, he was forced to marry her (unless her father refused). But in either case, it is not clear if there is a difference if the man is married. So, if a married man raped a woman and her father for what ever reason (I don't understand what a father ever would, but it seems they did) did not object, would this result in the married man getting a second (or higher number) wife?




If so, would this constitute a requirement for polygamy in certain situations?
 

lawtonfogle

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Hmmm...an interesting query.

Any particular reason you are wondering or just curiosity?

A different topic approached this issue, but it would still have been off topic, yet it was enough to spike my interest. Plus I was wondering if anyone knew exactly what happened back then, not just guesses, and thus I posted it here.
 
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Alhamdulilah

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I have studied the jewish laws, and in the books the only thing the books say about virgin rape, is that there will be a punishment.

Sorry i can't find much more then that. ( If i find more information in a new study book, i will share it. )
 
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NaLuvena

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Firstly, you must understand that monogamy was not practiced, nor was it the social norm in those days. Oddly enough (I say "oddly" in consideration of the current views of marriage we have now), it is not even spoken against in the Law. The only prohibition against having multiple wives is in 1 Timothy 3:12.

Secondly, there is no criteria regarding a mans marital status, so I would say that if said event happened, the man would gain an extra wife. Not what the feminists amongst us would like to hear, but that is what the Law says.
 
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lawtonfogle

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Firstly, you must understand that monogamy was not practiced, nor was it the social norm in those days. Oddly enough (I say "oddly" in consideration of the current views of marriage we have now), it is not even spoken against in the Law. The only prohibition against having multiple wives is in 1 Timothy 3:12.

Secondly, there is no criteria regarding a mans marital status, so I would say that if said event happened, the man would gain an extra wife. Not what the feminists amongst us would like to hear, but that is what the Law says.

That is what I get as best as I can tell. I was wondering if someone with more insight could share though.

Also, isn't 1 Timothy seems to not be an overall prohibition. It just seems to say to be a deacon/church elder that you can only have one wife. Some things, such as being a drunken, are condemned multiple times. But not everything is actually bad to not have, such as not having the ability to be a teacher. Some of use aren't the best teachers in the world, this doesn't mean we are sinning by not having the gift of teaching.

But this is besides the point.
 
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EricLBess

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You are correct. The result would be a polygamous marriage. Apart from the fact that there is not a word against it except in the cases of a monarch (Dt xvii.17) or a leader in the early ecclesiastical structure (referenced already above by another user), the bible legally sanctions polygamy as well. (see Exo xxi.10 & Dt xxi.15-17) In 2S xii.8 we find Yahweh himself blessing David with the wives of the deceased Saul's harem. You may also want to compare Song vi.8-9.

There are a couple other laws in the Pentateuch that would entail polygamy. The levirate (i.e., Dt xxv.5-10) would imply polygamy provided that the brother acting on behalf of the dead husband was already married. The law allowing marriage to female war captives (Dt xxi.10-14) would also imply polygamy.



Finis,
E.L.B.
 
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marktheblake

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So, if a married man raped a woman and her father for what ever reason (I don't understand what a father ever would, but it seems they did) did not object, would this result in the married man getting a second (or higher number) wife?

Yes, I beleive that would be the case. The problem being that if the virgin was raped she would no longer be able to marry someone else. The lesser of two evils I guess.

There are many issues to understand here in respect of these laws, one of them was the preservation of the integrity of a mans family lines and their inheritances. That would be the obvious reason for the death penalty for the rape of the married woman.

To fully understand the logic behind some of these laws and statutes you need to understand that God is building a nation, and he needed to form a government, an economy, lawas and a legal system, moral and social standards, and most important of all, a culture and a mindset that would eventually accept the messiah.

So when considering some of these laws, think about what kind of mindset does such a law establish in the hebrew people.
 
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lawtonfogle

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Obviously not, read my entire post please.

I did. I just quoted the question. But lets look at this part of your post.

To fully understand the logic behind some of these laws and statutes you need to understand that God is building a nation, and he needed to form a government, an economy, lawas and a legal system, moral and social standards, and most important of all, a culture and a mindset that would eventually accept the messiah.

What about going easy on rape helps society accept the Messiah? I'm getting nothing about going easy on rape which would open a society to be more accepting of a messiah than actually punishing rape would (and marrying the victim can be more of a reward than punishment in many cases, and even as a punishment, that is nothing compared to the standard punishments for sexual crimes.

So, if you can better explain this, please do.
 
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