Ok, this is far more of a Jewish history issue, but this was the closest forum I could find. If a mod knows of a better place to put it, then please move it (if it wouldn't be too much trouble).
Anyways, as I currently understand OT laws, if a man raped a married or engaged woman, he was put to death. If he raped a virgin, he was forced to marry her (unless her father refused). But in either case, it is not clear if there is a difference if the man is married. So, if a married man raped a woman and her father for what ever reason (I don't understand what a father ever would, but it seems they did) did not object, would this result in the married man getting a second (or higher number) wife?
If so, would this constitute a requirement for polygamy in certain situations?
Anyways, as I currently understand OT laws, if a man raped a married or engaged woman, he was put to death. If he raped a virgin, he was forced to marry her (unless her father refused). But in either case, it is not clear if there is a difference if the man is married. So, if a married man raped a woman and her father for what ever reason (I don't understand what a father ever would, but it seems they did) did not object, would this result in the married man getting a second (or higher number) wife?
If so, would this constitute a requirement for polygamy in certain situations?