What examples of word of knowledge can you find in scripture?

Anto9us · Mar 25, 2018

That which is perfect is A STATE OF THINGS to come - a state of things after Christ returns - not Christ Himself.

Just like our prophesying in part and knowing in part is a STATE OF THINGS NOW.

Attempted cessionist showboating with Greek fails to realize that non-cessionists can deal with Koine and lexicons also; though cesstionists seem to make every effort to prove that anything supernatural either 'passed away' or is never comin'.

Christ is masculine, the Holy Spirit is usually masculine in Greek, but sometimes Holy Spirit is neuter; this is a fact.

Anto9us · Mar 25, 2018

John 5:39

Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me.

again - Graphe - feminine noun = scriptures

Anto9us · Mar 25, 2018

Major1 said:
The pronoun "THAT" in Greek, describing the perfect, is neuter.

Bah. There is no 'pronoun' in the Greek.

The word 'THAT' is part of the whole phrase by which English translates TELEIOS, which is an adjective - an adjective describing a STATE OF THINGS

A state of things STILL TO COME.

Our English words "that which is perfect" are a single PHRASE translating the one Koine Greek word (adjective) -- TELEIOS

Francis Drake · Mar 25, 2018

Major1 said:
1 Corth. 13:10. ......
But when that which is perfect (Greek: "teleion" meaning complete) is come, then that which is in part shall be done away (Greek: "Katargetheseta" meaning to render inoperative).

Prophecy and knowledge, both being ""in part"", will be done away with when the perfect shall come.

When does the perfect come?

a) If it is the second coming of Christ, then prophecy, tongues and knowledge are allowable today and that is YOUR position.

b) If it is the completed New Testament Scriptures of 96 AD then prophecy, tongues and knowledge have all ceased in the first entury and are not for today and that is MY position..

To answer the question, we must ask another question: What is "that which is perfect?"

Several opinions are:
1. Jesus Christ at His second coming.
2. the perfected state of the believer at Christ''s return.
3. After the millenium in the new heaven and new earth.
4. the completed New Testament Scriptures.

Consider these reasons why the perfect refers to the completed New Testament scriptures:

1. "When that (Greek: To Teleion) which is perfect is come",
The pronoun "THAT" in Greek, describing the perfect, is neuter.

Christ however is masculine, not neuter, so "that which is perfect" cannot refer to Christ or His return. The Bible is neuter. This fits the context perfectly.

Did you not read what I said Major? Here it is again.-
"You and I have argued about this elsewhere @Major1 and this is not the place to start again. Suffice it to say, contrary to your views, I reject the notion that the word of knowledge has ceased."

Is there anything in that statement you didn't understand, particularly, "this is not the place to start again."

Out of politeness and to avoid confusion of others who might read our interchange of posts,

I simply acknowledged that we held contrary views and had sufficiently argued them elsewhere.

I made that point because I specifically didn't want to derail someone else's thread, and I still don't.

That said, all you have done is a kneejerk beating me over the head with your pet theology, whilst completely ignoring the content of my post.
So, @Major1, how about responding to the post itself.

Anto9us · Mar 25, 2018

Act 21:10
And as we tarried there many days, there came down from Judaea a certain prophet, named Agabus.

Act 21:11
And when he was come unto us, he took Paul's girdle, and bound his own hands and feet, and said, Thus saith the Holy Ghost, So shall the Jews at Jerusalem bind the man that owneth this girdle, and shall deliver him into the hands of the Gentiles.

This could be considered a Word of Knowledge that is NOT about "exposing sin".
It is also PROPHECY - from a known NT Prophet who had previously successfully predicted a famine (Acts 11) -- but "prophesying" can include several charismaton gifts -- interpretation of Tongues, word of knowledge, word of wisdom, prophecy -- anything that is a person giving a message from God in the hearers' own language.

That's why "rather that you prophesy"...

I try not to focus too much on things Jesus Himself did (like - there's fish on the other side, cast your nets there)
or OT stuff like Samuel finding Saul's father's donkees...

Anto9us · Mar 25, 2018

Act 9:10
And there was a certain disciple at Damascus, named Ananias; and to him said the Lord in a vision, Ananias. And he said, Behold, I am here, Lord.

Act 9:11
And the Lord said unto him, Arise, and go into the street which is called Straight, and enquire in the house of Judas for one called Saul, of Tarsus: for, behold, he prayeth,

Act 9:12
And hath seen in a vision a man named Ananias coming in, and putting his hand on him, that he might receive his sight.

This could be seen as Ananias RECEIVING a word of knowledge about Saul/Paul; it did not really 'expose sin' - and did result in healing (Paul's sight)

Major1 · Mar 25, 2018

Francis Drake said:
Did you not read what I said Major? Here it is again.-
"You and I have argued about this elsewhere @Major1 and this is not the place to start again. Suffice it to say, contrary to your views, I reject the notion that the word of knowledge has ceased."

Is there anything in that statement you didn't understand, particularly, "this is not the place to start again."

Out of politeness and to avoid confusion of others who might read our interchange of posts,
I simply acknowledged that we held contrary views and had sufficiently argued them elsewhere.

I made that point because I specifically didn't want to derail someone else's thread, and I still don't.

That said, all you have done is a kneejerk beating me over the head with your pet theology, whilst completely ignoring the content of my post.
So, @Major1, how about responding to the post itself.

The thread is about examples of the Word of Knowledge found in the Scriptures.

As a word of knowledge is listed in the Scriptures along with tongues and prophecy CEASING, then the comment that I made is acceptable for this thread.

If you do not like the comment then ignore it but which ever you do how about trying to be a little more courteous and Christian in your attitude because eyou are neither polite or do you limit confusion.

If you do not like to be beat over the head, then WEAR A CAP or change to the Bible's point of view.

Major1 · Mar 25, 2018

Anto9us said:
"Scripture" is a FEMININE NOUN
Graphe in 2Ti 3:16

so your "neuter" bovine scatology is blown out of the water.

Gender in a noun does not always mean it is referring to a male or a female.

Most words in non-English languages have gender. If in Spanish the word for "fish" is masculine (pescado), does it only refer to a male fish? No, of course not. It just means that the word for fish is expressed in the masculine gender. We English-speakers have taken out many of the gender markers on words. Other than words like "steward" vs."stewardess," most English words have no gender.

The Hebrew word for spirit, "ruach," is a feminine noun. But that simply means the word itself is expressed in that gender. Nothing more is implied.

It does not indicate that the Holy Spirit is feminine. It is simply the way that word is rendered in that language. In the Greek language of the New Testament, the word for "spirit" is "pneuma," which is a neuter noun. Basing a doctrine on the gender of a noun in Hebrew or Greek is sheer foolishness.
Masculine and Feminine nouns.... - Logos Bible Software Forums

Major1 · Mar 25, 2018

Anto9us said:
bull.

That is a wonderful worldly response!

Major1 · Mar 25, 2018

Anto9us said:
The OP was about EXAMPLES of Word of Knowledge - one sub-theme was that it was ONLY used to expose sin, no, no it wasn't.

Now we have a drift of Cessionism...

Agabus had a word of knowledge that if Paul went to Jerusalem, he would be bound; that happenned. It wasn't an exposure to sin, just the reality of Paul's fate. Agabus was also the New Testament prophet who predicted a famine that did indeed come to pass.

Word of Knowledge CAN be an exposing of sin, sure, like Ananias and Sapphira -- but it is not LIMITED to that.

And neither has it - or the other gifts - "ceased".

If a "Word of Knowledge" is to be used to expose sin, what then do you believe that the Holy Spirit does?

And Agabus takes Paul’s belt and ties up his own hands and feet with it and says, “The Holy Spirit says........
‘In this way the Jewish leaders in Jerusalem will bind the owner of this belt and will hand him over to the Gentiles’” (verse 11). When the people in Paul’s party hear the prophecy of Agabus, they do whatever they can to dissuade Paul from going to Jerusalem, but he is resolute. In this case, it seems the purpose of the prophecy was to mentally prepare Paul for what would befall him rather than to warn him not to go.

Why is that a Word of Knowledge and NOT a prophetic utterance?

Major1 · Mar 25, 2018

Francis Drake said:
Thanks for that gracious response Major.
Now how about addressing the testimonies I believe were words of knowledge.
They were certainly not of an earthly source and they certainly revealed hidden knowledge as do the various examples from scripture that have been presented.
Give it your best @Major1

Now YOU calling my response gracious is an OXYMORON isn't.
How would YOU know what gracious is my friend?????

It is going to take me awhile to get over the sunburn from your RED LETTER comments but I will try.

Francis Drake · Mar 25, 2018

Major1 said:
Now YOU calling my response gracious is an OXYMORON isn't.
How would YOU know what gracious is my friend?????

Nevertheless, please answer my question.

Major1 · Mar 25, 2018

Francis Drake said:
Nevertheless, please answer my question.

I am still blinded by all the RED FLASHIN INK you threw at me.

Ask me again what it is you want an answer to.

Francis Drake · Mar 25, 2018

Major1 said:
I am still blinded by all the RED FLASHIN INK you threw at me.

Ask me again what it is you want an answer to.

The examples I gave are in Post No14.
I have more than 40 years worth of real life examples.

Major1 · Mar 25, 2018

Anto9us said:
Act 9:10
And there was a certain disciple at Damascus, named Ananias; and to him said the Lord in a vision, Ananias. And he said, Behold, I am here, Lord.

Act 9:11
And the Lord said unto him, Arise, and go into the street which is called Straight, and enquire in the house of Judas for one called Saul, of Tarsus: for, behold, he prayeth,

Act 9:12
And hath seen in a vision a man named Ananias coming in, and putting his hand on him, that he might receive his sight.

This could be seen as Ananias RECEIVING a word of knowledge about Saul/Paul; it did not really 'expose sin' - and did result in healing (Paul's sight)

Yes it certainly could. It was a "vision" from God to Ananias.

The Bible had yet to be canonized in fact it had not yet even been written so God was still using prophets as His mouth piece.

Isn't that pretty much the way God always had word with prophets?

Major1 · Mar 25, 2018

Francis Drake said:
The examples I gave are in Post No14.
I have more than 40 years worth of real life examples.

I am sure my vision will improve by tomorrow from your RED INK attack.

Anto9us · Mar 25, 2018

I feel, Francis, that some of your WOK experiences are sort of in line with Ananias's being told about Saul/Paul, which led to healing of blindness

EXPERIENCE to me is one item of "how we are led"

Scripture Reason Tradition and Experience are the four elements of the "Wesleyan Quadrilateral"
which many Methodists hold to rather than "Sola Scriptura"

The Anglican HOOKER previously had 3 of the four - Scripture Reason Tradition
there is even a sub-forum of Anglicans and Old Catholic here on CF named for the "Trilateral"

John Wesley never did sit down one day and say "here's my Quadrilateral" -- actually a theologian in the 60's - Albert Outler I think it was - came up with "what Wesley WOULD HAVE SAID"

but by the time I was old enough to grasp things, WESLEYAN QUADRILATERAL it was

Francis Drake · Mar 26, 2018

Anto9us said:
I feel, Francis, that some of your WOK experiences are sort of in line with Ananias's being told about Saul/Paul, which led to healing of blindness

Agreed. Also in line with many others found in scripture.

EXPERIENCE to me is one item of "how we are led"

Scripture Reason Tradition and Experience are the four elements of the "Wesleyan Quadrilateral"
which many Methodists hold to rather than "Sola Scriptura"

The Anglican HOOKER previously had 3 of the four - Scripture Reason Tradition
there is even a sub-forum of Anglicans and Old Catholic here on CF named for the "Trilateral"

John Wesley never did sit down one day and say "here's my Quadrilateral" -- actually a theologian in the 60's - Albert Outler I think it was - came up with "what Wesley WOULD HAVE SAID"

but by the time I was old enough to grasp things, WESLEYAN QUADRILATERAL it was

I can't make head or tail of the rest of your post. Was it linked in any way to what I posted?

Anto9us · Mar 26, 2018

lol
only trying to show importance of EXPERIENCE

Francis Drake · Mar 26, 2018

Anto9us said:
lol
only trying to show importance of EXPERIENCE

Ah, sorry.

Its interesting that so many people exalt theology and completely dismiss experience as if it's a lower form of proof. This despite Jesus appealing experience (of his works) as a basis of proof.

John14v9Jesus says to him, “Am I with you so long a time, and you have not known Me, Philip? The one having seen Me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? 10Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me? The words that I speak to you, I do not speak from Myself; but the Father dwelling in Me does His works. 11Believe Me that I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me; or else believe me for the very works sake.

Philip

What examples of word of knowledge can you find in scripture?

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