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What does "Non-denominational" mean??

PloverWing

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"Only Scripture" means that all that is needed to know for salvation is contained within the Scriptures. There are many theological questions that are good and interesting and important, but that do not have to be answered correctly in order to be saved.
 
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Dave-W

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Interesting, so people increasingly acknowledge there is actual ambiguity that was never resolved since ancient times....
Indeed. In that we (in some circles) are going back to the late 2nd temple Judaism that embraced both Hillel's and Shammai's points of view.
 
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Dave-W

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"Only Scripture" means that all that is needed to know for salvation is contained within the Scriptures. There are many theological questions that are good and interesting and important, but that do not have to be answered correctly in order to be saved.
That is NOT how many take Sola Scriptura. (including myself)

Ever heard of the hermenutic CENI?

Command
Example
Necessary Inference
 
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PloverWing

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That is NOT how many take Sola Scriptura. (including myself)
It's how I have understood it. See, for example, the 39 Articles: "Holy Scripture containeth all things necessary to salvation: so that whatsoever is not read therein, nor may be proved thereby, is not to be required of any man, that it should be believed as an article of the Faith, or be thought requisite or necessary to salvation."

However, it's been a while since I read Luther, so I acknowledge that I may be misremembering how he used the phrase.

Ever heard of the hermenutic CENI?

Command
Example
Necessary Inference
No, I'm not familiar with CENI. Can you expand on what it means?
 
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Dave-W

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No, I'm not familiar with CENI. Can you expand on what it means?
As used by the Church of Christ, the Christian Church and other groups from the Stone-Campbell revivalists, Nothing is allowed unless in the New Testament there is a command to do something, an example of the early church doing something, or a situation which infers something. They follow the Zwingly concept that if something does not fit that form, it MUST be condemned and disallowed.

Since there is no mention of the Early Church using instruments, the Church of Christ believes that to do so in church today means you cannot be saved. It is strictly forbidden. That is the kind of sola scriptura I am used to.
 
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Duvduv

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Indeed. In that we (in some circles) are going back to the late 2nd temple Judaism that embraced both Hillel's and Shammai's points of view.
Why would it take all these denominations who are non-denominational or who are involved in ecumenism to come to the conclusion that their strongly held doctrines may be mistaken, and those of other groups may be correct? Again, we are talking about very fundamental issues of grace, baptism, sanctification, justification, etc.
Indeed, the idea of non-denominational as discussed would seem to ignore very basic disagreements from scriptural sources about things like guaranteed salvation ("perseverance").
 
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Albion

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As used by the Church of Christ, the Christian Church and other groups from the Stone-Campbell revivalists, Nothing is allowed unless in the New Testament there is a command to do something, an example of the early church doing something, or a situation which infers something. They follow the Zwingly concept that if something does not fit that form, it MUST be condemned and disallowed.

Since there is no mention of the Early Church using instruments, the Church of Christ believes that to do so in church today means you cannot be saved. It is strictly forbidden. That is the kind of sola scriptura I am used to.
That POV is usually termed SolO Scriptura in contrast to Sola Scriptura, I believe.
 
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Dave-W

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That POV is usually termed SolO Scriptura in contrast to Sola Scriptura, I believe.
I have never heard of that term.
 
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HypnoToad

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As used by the Church of Christ, the Christian Church and other groups from the Stone-Campbell revivalists, Nothing is allowed unless in the New Testament there is a command to do something, an example of the early church doing something, or a situation which infers something. They follow the Zwingly concept that if something does not fit that form, it MUST be condemned and disallowed.

Since there is no mention of the Early Church using instruments, the Church of Christ believes that to do so in church today means you cannot be saved. It is strictly forbidden. That is the kind of sola scriptura I am used to.
That is definitely NOT sola scriptura. Such a view is actually, as far as I can see, in direct contradiction to what we find in the New Testament. In a couple instances in the New Testament, Paul includes a couple of his own opinions. I don't have the specific references, but he comes right out and says something like, "this is from me, not God." If your view of sola scriptura were what God actually intended, then what Paul did is inexcusable and should be condemned.
 
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Dave-W

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I don't have the specific references, but he comes right out and says something like, "this is from me, not God."
Often misunderstood. That cannot be taken as totally "not from God," or just "man's opinion" and therefore useless. It meant it was from New Revelation God gave Paul; something not stated in the OT. Conversely when he said "From God, not me.." it meant it WAS in the OT.
 
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PloverWing

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As used by the Church of Christ, the Christian Church and other groups from the Stone-Campbell revivalists, Nothing is allowed unless in the New Testament there is a command to do something, an example of the early church doing something, or a situation which infers something. They follow the Zwingly concept that if something does not fit that form, it MUST be condemned and disallowed.
Okay. While I'm aware of the Church of Christ and the Stone-Campbell movement, it's not a theological tradition that I've studied in any detail.
 
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HypnoToad

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Often misunderstood. That cannot be taken as totally "not from God," or just "man's opinion" and therefore useless.
Who said anything about it being useless??

It meant it was from New Revelation God gave Paul; something not stated in the OT. Conversely when he said "From God, not me.." it meant it WAS in the OT.
That doesn't make sense. It can't be "not from God" AND "new revelation FROM GOD" at the same time. That contradicts Paul's own words. I found one of the references - 1 Corinthians 7:25 - Paul says, "I have no command of the Lord, but I give an opinion." Paul directly states it IS an opinion, not any "revelation from God".
 
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Dave-W

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"No command of the Lord" = not in the OT

"I have an opinion" = his opinions in writing what became scripture were inspired by God.
 
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HypnoToad

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"No command of the Lord" = not in the OT

"I have an opinion" = his opinions in writing what became scripture were inspired by God.
So you've already claimed. And as already pointed out, that makes no sense when we look at Paul's actual words. Simply repeating yourself doesn't refute anything.
 
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Dave-W

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So you've already claimed. And as already pointed out, that makes no sense when we look at Paul's actual words. Simply repeating yourself doesn't refute anything.
Do you believe the NT was divinely inspired?
 
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