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What does Matthew 22:44 mean?

jream

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Matthew 22
42
What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?"
"The son of David," they replied.

43 He said to them, "How is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him 'Lord'? For he says,

44 'The Lord said to my Lord:
"Sit at my right hand
until I put your enemies
under your feet."

45 If then David calls him 'Lord,' how can he be his son?"

I do not understand it, I am not good at reading things right but I have read this enough times and now it's bothering me.

Is David is calling God, Lord but if the Lord is the Lord who is the Lord talking to the other Lord?
 

Blackguard_

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The KJV makes it more obvious.

Here's Psalm 110:1, the verse quoted by Jesus there.
1 The LORD says to my Lord:
"Sit at my right hand
until I make your enemies
a footstool for your feet."

Is David is calling God, Lord but if the Lord is the Lord who is the Lord talking to the other Lord?
David is calling God Lord as well as calling someone Lord he regards as a ruler who outranks him, etc. ie. his lord. Lord doesn't always mean God. Jesus was simply asking how David could regard his son as his Lord, which is pretty wacky given the custom of hereditary power.


The passage is easy to understand with the Trinity, the Father is the LORD and Jesus is the "Lord". Remember, when Psalm 110 was written they didn't know about the Trinity.
 
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SonicBOOM

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Matthew 22
42 What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?"
"The son of David," they replied.

43 He said to them, "How is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him 'Lord'? For he says,

44 'The Lord said to my Lord:
"Sit at my right hand
until I put your enemies
under your feet."

45 If then David calls him 'Lord,' how can he be his son?"

I do not understand it, I am not good at reading things right but I have read this enough times and now it's bothering me.

Is David is calling God, Lord but if the Lord is the Lord who is the Lord talking to the other Lord?

The LORD [God the father or "YAHWAH"] said to my Lord [Jesus, or the prophesied messaih].

does that make sense :)
 
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SonicBOOM

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Kind of confusing,

So GOD said to David's Lord (His Authority Man figure or Jesus).

that is very confusing

Jesus has always been the authority man, it's by His name that we come to the Father. It's by his name that demons cower. He's the one who will ride on a white horse with power and authority, and he's the one who will rule and is called "the king of kings". the responsability of authority is given to Jesus alone.
 
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Blackguard_

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i didnt know lutherans dont believe in trinity

Uhh, no, we do beleive in the Trinity.

"Father said to Jesus" is in line with the Trinity. Jesus is the second person of the Trinity, the Son. It's 2 persons of the Trinity communicating.

Who do you think Jesus prayed to in the gospels and called Father?
 
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jream

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Uhh, no, we do beleive in the Trinity.

"Father said to Jesus" is in line with the Trinity. Jesus is the second person of the Trinity, the Son. It's 2 persons of the Trinity communicating.

Who do you think Jesus prayed to in the gospels and called Father?

Sorry I was thrown off about a comment you made but erased about trinitarian but it must mean something else. :hug:
 
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radhead

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oh I wish they capitalized LORD in NIV!

It is, in the Psalm 110 passage. Which means it was translated as "Yahweh." But the New Testament passage seems to indicate that Jesus literally said, "The Lord." But don't quote me on that.
 
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SonicBOOM

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So, how do they equate the Messiah in the Psalm passage with David's natural son? Where does David refer to him as his son?

the prophesied messiah was said to be "the Son of David" so the people thought he would be 100% human and would come from David's bloodline. Jesus clears up this confusion by stating that David himself calls the messaih "Lord" so therefore he can't be only human, he has to be divine. The whole issue is about Jesus's divinity and it's a good place to look if you doubt his claim to be God.
 
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