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What Did Peter Know?

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cubanito

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Dispy said:
Prior to Paul's conversion, he describes himself thusly in Philippians 3:5 "Circumcised the eighth day, of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, and Hebrew of the Hebrews; as touching the law, a Pharisee:
6 Concerning zeal, persecuting the church; touching the righteousness which is in the law blameless."

His description of himself is pretty much the same as the Judaizers that hounded him during his earthly ministry. He (Paul) like they were zealous of the Law, and did not believe that Jesus was the prophesied Messiah of Israel.

When Paul was converted, he did not have the mystery revealed to him all at once. Because of his love for his fellow countrymen, he went about to the Jewish synogogues telling them that Jesus was the Christ. He used OT Scriptures to point it out to them. Paul used OT Scriptures more then any other apostle to prove that Jesus was the Christ, the long promised Messiah of Israel.

Keep in mind that all those that attended the synogogue were keepers of the Law, and not all of them believed that Jesus was their long promised Messiah. Paul's problems in the synogogues were with people like his former self.

When Paul was converted, he was commissioned to go to the Gentiles, kings, and children of Israel. So Paul was still carrying out what he was commissioned to do. He quit going to the Jews first because they were rejecting his message.



Paul "submitted" to the council at Jerusalem because he was told by God to go there. Gal.2:1 "Then fourteen years after I went up again to Jerusalem with Banabas, and too Titus with me also.
2. And i went up by revelation, and communicated unto them that gospel (indication it was a different gospel) which I preached among the Gentiles..."

Paul opposed the Judaizers because they didn't believe that Jesus was their long promised Messiah, and that they wanted Paul's converts to adhere to the Laws of Moses.



Peter and the 11 were commissioned to preach "the gospel of the kingdom," To the Jew first (Acts 1:8), and then to the world. It was redeemed Israel that the Gentile nations were to be blessed. However, we see from the progression in the book of Acts; that Israel, as a nation rejected thier King and His Kingdom. Therefore, God set the nation of Israel aside and raised up Saul/Paul, not to preach "the gospel of the kingdom," but to preach the gospel of the grace of God. Not according to the fulfillment of OT prophesy, but to proclaim "...the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began" (Romans 16:25).

James, Chephas (Peter), and John, realizing that Paul had a commission that replaced their's, agree with Paul as Galatians 2:9 says: "And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, preceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen (Gentiles) and they unto the circumcision (Jews).

Peter and the 11 were commissioned to preach "the gospel of the kingdom." Paul was commissioned to preach "the gospel of the grace of God." These are two opposing gospels (doctrines). Therefore, Peter and the 11 stayed with those who were saved under the preaching of their gospel. Their later letters are addressed to those saved under the kingdom program and were scattered because of the persecution.




Jesus never revised the passover. At the time of Matthew 26:28:29; Mark 14:24,25; Luke 22:17-20, He instituted what we call today "The Lord's Supper"/"Communion," while celebrating the Passover.

It was required of Israel to celebrate the Passover. Now that Israel, as a nation, is in a set aside condition, we do not celebrate the Passover, however, we do practise the Lord's Supper; in accordance with 1Cor.11:25, as a memorial to His death, and what it accomplished.

At the Passover, Jesus is speaking of the New Testament (Covenant) in His Blood. He is not speaking of New Covenant with Israel mentioned in Jeremiah 31:31, or Hebrews 8:10.

A Covenant is a contract/agreement/arrangement. So a New Covenant is a new contract/agreement/arrangement.

Prior to the crucifiction of Jesus, it was the blood of animals that atoned for the sins of God's chosen people. That blood did not take away sin, but only covered it. It only covered sins that were past. It did not cover future sins.

Under the New Covenant, (contract/agreement/arrangement), that Jesus was making in that Upper Room, the fulfillment of that contract/agreement/arrangement, was in His Blood. That is what the cup is representing. So the New Covenant that Jesus is speaking of, will be fulfilled with what the contents of the cup represented.

Under the New Covenant (contract/agreement/arrangement) The Blood of Christ does more then cover the sins that are past. It forgives all sins, past, present and future. It does not have to be done yearly or on a regular basis, it was a "once for all sacrifice."

God Bless.
Live Well, Laugh Often and Love the Lord!
Dispy typed: When Paul was converted, he was commissioned to go to the Gentiles, kings, and children of Israel. So Paul was still carrying out what he was commissioned to do. He quit going to the Jews first because they were rejecting his message.
BUT
Dispy also typed later on …Peter and the 11 were commissioned to preach "the gospel of the kingdom." Paul was commissioned to preach "the gospel of the grace of God." These are two opposing gospels (doctrines). Therefore, Peter and the 11 stayed with those who were saved under the preaching of their gospel. Their later letters are addressed to those saved under the kingdom program and were scattered because of the persecution.

Ok so what is it, Paul to preach to everybody, only the Gentiles or was there some change at the council of Jerusalem? As far as I’m concerned Paul was to go to everybody, Jew and Gentile, and his predilection was to try the Jews first. However the 12 tended to stay in Jerusalem (until persecution finally drove them out) whereas Paul was mutually agreed to travel around.




More dispy: Paul "submitted" to the council at Jerusalem because he was told by God to go there. Gal.2:1 "Then fourteen years after I went up again to Jerusalem with Banabas, and too Titus with me also.
2. And i went up by revelation, and communicated unto them that gospel (indication it was a different gospel) which I preached among the Gentiles..."


I do not see where “that gospel” (translation: good news) means “a different gospel”. If I tell you that I just came from telling my neighbor that good news, the assumption would be that it was the same good news we had just been speaking about, not a different unknown one.


Dispy continues: Paul opposed the Judaizers because they didn't believe that Jesus was their long promised Messiah, and that they wanted Paul's converts to adhere to the Laws of Moses.

No, he opposed the Judaizers because they sought to add the Mosaic system (most specifically, circumcision) to the news that Jesus was the Messiah. Incidentally, Paul called Peter a hypocrite to his face for “falling in” with the Judaizers. Well then, that assumes that Peter’s gospel was the same as Paul’s, else how could Paul criticize Peter for preaching the need for circumcision? If indeed Peter was commissioned by God to preach a different gospel, then Peter would be quite correct in preaching differently to the Jews than Paul to the Gentiles. It aint so. The very fact of a Jerusalem council, presupposes that Paul viewed his preaching as in line with everyone else’s.




Dispy continues torturing his keyboard with: James, Chephas (Peter), and John, realizing that Paul had a commission that replaced their's, agree with Paul as Galatians 2:9 says: "And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen (Gentiles) and they unto the circumcision (Jews).


Where exactly do you get “REPLACED” in the text? The way I read it, Peter had already amply proven the end of the Mosaic dietary system, and even the circumcision that preceded it very forcefully in the Cornelius incident. I agree that a new dispensation was ushered in, and that all manner of old covenant was abolished. After all, I AM a dispy. But even the most strident Covenental proponent would agree that a replacement occurred. We argue about WHEN that replacement occurred. IMO, it occurred during the passion or just days after (and frankly I think the moment was in fact the last supper, when Christ declared a New Covenant I give to you”). You on the other hand seem to point to sometime well AFTER the incident with Cornelius, well AFTER the initial conversion of Saul to Paul. I am curious if you can pinpoint more exactly when exactly this Latest Covenant occurred between God and man. Covenants must involve the shedding of blood. They occur at a precise moment in time, with witnesses. Christ certainly met the timing, God, blood and witness part. When exactly did an even newer covenant get set up by Paul, replacing Peter’s? Remember again, Peter preached an end to the Mosaic system, and end to circumcision requirements while Saul was still persecuting the Church. That Peter backslid a bit later into a chummy attitude with the Judaizers is not out of character for the volatile Peter. Denial of Truth was well known of Peter (as was bold proclamation of it also).






Dispy maintains that: t was required of Israel to celebrate the Passover. Now that Israel, as a nation, is in a set aside condition, we do not celebrate the Passover, however, we do practice the Lord's Supper; in accordance with 1Cor.11:25, as a memorial to His death, and what it accomplished.

OK, fine, but is that all you see in Passover? Is not Passover an exquisitively clear type of the final sacrifice of the Lamb of God? Is not in fact Christ the Paschal Lamb, the fulfillment of, the very last, Passover, costing the firstbegotten Son of God Himself?

Dispy upholds with fervor: At the Passover, Jesus is speaking of the New Testament (Covenant) in His Blood. He is not speaking of New Covenant with Israel mentioned in Jeremiah 31:31, or Hebrews 8:10.


Uh-huh, sure, because you say so. Look, I am getting confused, with you the terminology New Covenant is insufficient, as there were (if I understand you correctly) at least 3 covenants throughout Acts. The Old (which we can call Mosaic), the New for Israel, and the New for Gentiles. Abgbreviation time, If you’d agree w me, let’s make it OT, NI (standing for either New Israel or New Intermediate) and NG (or New for Gentiles). Otherwise give me a better explanation, because it seems we have multiple New Covenants that you propose.


The rest of what dispy wrote I agree to.


And as far as Eph, I’m sorry, I just think you’re over the top sis. Hermeneutical systems, like dispy/hyper-dispy/Covenental/Allegorical are tools to help us learn and communicate Truth. They are not the core of the Faith. That’s my last word to you, as I’ve no desire to engage in a screaming match over something I consider peripheral.

JR, moderate (progressive) dispy
 
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WAB

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Dispy said:
Being you were unable to respond to what I wrote in the context in which it was written I am unable to respond to what you posted.

Each one of my responses were to what you actually wrote. Please do the same for me.

You are evading the issue... he did respond, and with that with which you are correct in stating that you "...were unable to respond to..."
 
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Dispy

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Dispy said:
Being you were unable to respond to what I wrote in the context in which it was written I am unable to respond to what you posted.

Each one of my responses were to what you actually wrote. Please do the same for me.


WAB said:
You are evading the issue... he did respond, and with that with which you are correct in stating that you "...were unable to respond to..."

Yes, he did respond, BUT NOT IN CONTEXT!!! It is apparent that you do not understand the word CONTEXT either.
 
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eph3Nine

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cubanito said:
screaming, screaming, screaming, screaming, screaming, screaming, screaming, SCREAMING!!!!!!!!!

NOR YELLING "CONTEXT" ADVANCES THE KINGDOM :pray:

calm down, because I say so.

JR


I thot you said you were signing off...LOL...just cant resist can ya??? LOL LOL

Sometimes BIG TEXT is the only way one can make sure that someone actually SEES what is written. I think thats dispys point. Hes not a screamer.

Wink
 
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WAB

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eph3Nine said:
I thot you said you were signing off...LOL...just cant resist can ya??? LOL LOL

Sometimes BIG TEXT is the only way one can make sure that someone actually SEES what is written. I think thats dispys point. Hes not a screamer.

Wink

Tried to post this earlier, but for some reason it didn't appear.

Dispy is a screamer... have a look at post #24 in this thread. But he screams in agreement with you, so guess that is what makes the difference.:doh:
 
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Dispy

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cubanito said:
screaming, screaming, screaming, screaming, screaming, screaming, screaming, SCREAMING!!!!!!!!!

NOR YELLING "CONTEXT" ADVANCES THE KINGDOM :pray:

calm down, because I say so.

JR

Wasn't screeming. Just placing emphasis where it was ignored. It appears that some persons have a hard time comprehending what they read or understand/comprehend what is being said/asked.

God Bless.
Live Well, Laugh Often and Love the Lord!
 
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eph3Nine

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Told ya so....when its OBVIOUS that folks simply arent reading Gods printed WORDS, and we have repeated them over and over...then LARGER seems to be indicated as necessary.We assume they have a reading comprehension problem.:)
 
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WAB

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eph3Nine said:
Told ya so....when its OBVIOUS that folks simply arent reading Gods printed WORDS, and we have repeated them over and over...then LARGER seems to be indicated as necessary.We assume they have a reading comprehension problem.:)

By the same reasoning, when one is engaged in conversation with another who does not agree with one's position/doctrine, the LOUDER one screams, the more legitimate that one's argument becomes.

Once again...:doh:
 
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