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Originally posted by thetruthseeker
Let's pray for our brothers and sisters who are caught in spiritual Babylon. Let's pray that they will see the light and truly put the Bible first.
Originally posted by geocajun
who was the man who told you scripture was the word of God? what authority told you that?
Scripture is only one of the ways in which God talks to us, he also talks to us through sacred tradition and His Church.
Originally posted by seangoh
Consider these texts geocajun,
"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" 2 Tim 3:16
"To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to THIS word, it is because there is no light in them." Isa 8:20 emphasis supplied
"Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 21For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost." 2 Peter 1:20,21
What i ask is that u interpret these 3 texts. It seems u have a different interpretation of them and i'd want to know.
Originally posted by Pastor N.B.
Hi again for the last time perhaps?
If you were right as far as your missive reads, (and you are void in my thinking) lets just test this by scripture.
Could any person find 'conversion' (the born again experience) by having NO SCRIPTURE as we know it? And to bring it home (lovingly) where we can KNOW TRUTH, is there any person who would allow 'others' to think as you do about any man, while being converted to Christ??
Kneel before him, kiss his ring?? Think that his 'w'ord is above Christ's WORD? (while still saying that they are Christian!!?)
Originally posted by adam332
geocajun,
you said;
"thats true if you disregard the following verses of Scripture and hunt and peck around scripture to find verses that mean what you want. that way you aren't bound to the whole of scripture see..
"passages of Scripture such as Acts 20:7, 1 Corinthians 16:2, Colossians 2:16-17, and Revelation 1:10 indicate that, even during New Testament times, the Sabbath is no longer binding and that Christians are to worship on the Lords day, Sunday, instead.""
Let's look at these passages that you claim hold such evidence....
Q. Is Sunday the Lord's day?
A. "the Lord's day" appears only once in the Bible in Rev.1:10. Many claim this is a reference to Sunday. There is no validity of such claims, neither is there any historical evidence to support that any Christians had begun to observe Sunday for any reason, during the first century. The context of the Bible as well as the chapter itself, also lend absolutely no support to such a claim.
OT references do nothing for this argument...Lets use the scripture as a guide, to see what day might possibly be the Lords day. The phrases "Sabbath of the Lord", "Lord even of the Sabbath" and "Lord also of the Sabbath" do appear.
Exo. 20:10 "But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God..."
Lev.23:3 "... the seventh day...it is the sabbath of the LORD ..."
Deu.5:14 "But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God..."
of course, because He is God and the sabbath is dedicated to the Lord. . .Mat.12:8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.
see comment above...Mark 2:28 Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.
see comment above. . . also, look up the judahizers. I think you could learn a bit about the early Heresy Saint Paul was fighting.Luke 6:5 "... the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath."
There are still, 15 additional instances which all show clearly that the Lord calls the seventh day my Sabbath(s), again laying ownership of only one special day, (Exo. 31:13, Lev. 19:3, 30, 26:2, Isa. 56:4, Eze. 20:12,13,16,20,21,24, 22:8,26, 23:38, 44:24).
no it isn't clear, thats conjecture again...This is the only day of the week which He blessed and sanctified, (Gen. 2:3). So if any day of the week should be called "the Lord's day" it is quite clear that only one day ever referred to as His, that would be the Sabbath day.
Originally posted by adam332
People also mention that the breaking of bread proves that a communion service was held. In Mat. 14:19 Christ broke bread to feed the multitudes, even though there is no mention of communion or Sabbath.
Originally posted by adam332
geocajun,
please slow down and read what is actually written. This will be a huge waste of our time if we do not have the consideration to do that.
I did not say, that breaking of bread is refferring to the multiplication of loaves. What I did was give examples, that the term "breaking of bread", can and did mean many things. The Bible proves that this term was generic for simply eating and fellowship. Please read all of my post so I don't have to retype what I just wrote 20 minutes ago.
Originally posted by adam332
Do you want the 5th, 6th, 7th, etc... centuries as well?????
Or how about the Bible to show you that statement is false?
Acts 13:42 And when the Jews were gone out of the synagogue, the Gentiles besought that these words might be preached to them the next sabbath. 43 Now when the congregation was broken up, many of the Jews and religious proselytes followed Paul and Barnabas: who, speaking to them, persuaded them to continue in the grace of God. 44 And the next sabbath day came almost the whole city together to hear the word of God.
Need I keep going????
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