Well, thank you for finally revealing your true purpose behind your demonstrations of that particular line of argument.Georg Cantor initiated his theory of sets in order to provide a mathematical treatment of infinite sets. Thus the distinction between the finite and the infinite lies at the core of set theory. Certain foundationalists, the strict finitists, reject the existence of infinite sets and thus recommend a mathematics based solely on finite sets. (wikipedia)
But on the other hand to suppose that the infinite does not exist in any way leads obviously to many impossible consequences: there will be a beginning and end of time, a magnitude will not be divisible into magnitudes, number will not be infinite. If, then, in view of the above considerations, neither alternative seems possible, an arbiter must be called in. (Aristotle, Physics, Book 3, Chapter 6)
I do not agree that invoking Aristotlean philosophy acts as some kind of arbiter in this ... namely because, as I was demonstrating waayy back in this thread, your opening supposition: 'suppose that the infinite does not exist in any way' is entirely dependent on what you mean by 'exists'.
I know how we arrive at the meaning of that term .. and it doesn't invoke the nonsensical definition of some so-called 'Justified True Belief'. Mine is an objectively demonstrable way of arriving at what we mean by that term .. called the scientific method which has demonstrably evolved since Aristotle's way of thinking.
Irrelevant line of argument.klutedavid said:Mathematics is not metaphysics.
Fair enough .. its all about making sense and usefulness, as opposed to endless philosophical navel-gazing nonsense which leads nowhere.klutedavid said:The issue was never sorted out back in Hilbert's day. The herd just moved on.
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