jgr said in post #203:
What amount of Jewish DNA do Scripture or the Israeli Law of Return say does make someone a Jew?
Note that the Israeli Law of Return is not the Bible, and was written by non-Christians.
Also, note that the Bible shows that at one point even individuals who were only 50% Jewish were expelled from Israel (Ezra 10:3).
Also, even though all nations have always been from one blood (Acts 17:26), note that God still distinguishes between Jews and Gentiles today, for He will still distinguish between them in the future (e.g. Romans 11:25-29, Revelation 11:2).
Also, what are the names of the genes that your study authors are claiming to be from Jacob, and how were these genes detected in Eskimos and Pygmies, for example?
Also, how was a genetic sample from Jacob obtained, and how was it determined to be from him and not from someone else? (For example, there are some people who claim that the Jews today are not Israelites, but "Khazars" who converted to Judaism.)
jgr said in post #203:
[Re: The Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24]
When is that tribulation?
Note that the Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 will occur in our future, for it has never been fulfilled. Regarding when it could be fulfilled, see the "fig tree" part of post #7 above.
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Also, why does partial preterism believe in a future Second Coming, but not a future Tribulation, when:
1. The Second Coming and rapture (the gathering together/catching up together of the Church: 2 Thessalonians 2:1; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17) must occur "immediately after" the Tribulation of Matthew 24 and Revelation chapters 6 to 18 (Matthew 24:29-31, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6);
2. The Second Coming and rapture cannot occur until sometime after the man of sin (commonly called the Antichrist, also called the beast) sits in a future, third Jewish temple in Jerusalem during the Tribulation, and declares himself God (2 Thessalonians 2:1-4, Daniel 11:31,36, Matthew 24:15-31, Revelation 11:1-2, Revelation 13:4-18); and
3. At Jesus' Second Coming to rapture and marry the Church, He will destroy the Antichrist (2 Thessalonians 2:1,8, Revelation 19:7,20)?
Partial preterism might answer: "It is obvious that the Second Coming has not happened yet". And that is right. But full preterism nonetheless still mistakenly claims that the Second Coming, resurrection, and rapture described in 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 (and in 2 Thessalonians 2:1, Matthew 24:29-31; 1 Corinthians 15:22-23,52-54 and Revelation 19:7 to 20:6) have already happened. For full preterism employs the same "it is only allegorical, not literal" argument which partial preterism uses to mistakenly claim that all of the highly-detailed, myriad different events of the Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 have already happened. If partial preterism has no problem accepting that the Second Coming, resurrection of the Church, and rapture have not occurred yet, for nowhere in history do we find the events of 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 (which are the same events as 2 Thessalonians 2:1, Matthew 24:29-31; 1 Corinthians 15:22-23,52-54, and Revelation 19:7 to 20:6), then why does partial preterism have a problem accepting the fact that the events of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 have not occurred yet either, for nowhere in history do we find these events either?
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