- Feb 25, 2003
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this is really bothering me. i came across a thread in GA about this and then a friend of mine and i were discussing it last night as well. in Matthew 8:14-15 it speaks of Peter's mother-in-law being healed by Jesus. Okay so then that must mean he was married. and we believe Peter to be the first Pope. and i was always under the assumption that Popes couldn't marry. okay and i realize the teachings of Paul in that a married man's time is divided while an unmarried man's focus is solely on the Lord and i assume that's where the precept of remaining celibate comes from correct? but if Peter (our first Pope) was married then when did it come about that they shouldn't marry?
it says in the CCC 1579 that ministers of the Latin Church are normally chosen from those who live a celibate life and intend to remain celibate.
and then in 1580 it says Eastern Churches have married men as priests.
so i guess my question is, if Peter was married adn we look upon him as the first Pope when did it become the rule (or is it a carved in stone rule) that priests cannot marry?
I'm sooo confused!!!
it says in the CCC 1579 that ministers of the Latin Church are normally chosen from those who live a celibate life and intend to remain celibate.
and then in 1580 it says Eastern Churches have married men as priests.
so i guess my question is, if Peter was married adn we look upon him as the first Pope when did it become the rule (or is it a carved in stone rule) that priests cannot marry?
I'm sooo confused!!!